Early modern philosophy and science are often said to have put a “mechanical” or “mechanistic” conception of nature at the center of Western thought. Robert Boyle referred to it as “the mechanical philosophy.” Historian of science E. J. Dijksterhuis characterized it as a “mechanization of the world picture.” Tim Crane calls it “the mechanical world picture.” But what does a mechanical or mechanistic conception of the world amount to?
Dijksterhuis’s book The Mechanization of the World Picture surveys the history of the period during which this conception rose to hegemony, and in the Epilogue he considers several possible interpretations that the survey suggests. First, it is commonly said that a mechanistic conception of the natural world is one which sees it as a kind of machine, analogous to a clock. And such metaphors are, he says, indeed frequent in writers of the period.
However, Dijksterhuis does not think this actually captures what is essential to the mechanical world picture. The reason is that the notion of a machine implies teleology. For example, what makes a clock a clock is that it serves the function of telling time. It is true that this suggests a model of teleology that differs from the one associated with Aristotelianism, according to which natural teleology is intrinsic to a substance – in contrast to the teleology possessed by human artifacts, which is imposed from outside by their designers and users. (I have discussed the various conceptions of teleology in many places, such as this article.) All the same, the early modern mechanical philosophy was inspired by ancient atomism, which eschewed teleological explanation. And as the mechanical world picture developed, teleological explanations came to be seen as scientifically deficient. So, Dijksterhuis argues, the machine model does not really capture what is essential to it.A second
possible interpretation of a mechanical or mechanistic mode of explanation sees
it as essentially concerned with discovering the hidden mechanisms underlying natural phenomena. Think of the way that we come to understand
how an automobile engine works when we see how the burning of fuel creates
small explosions that move pistons, which in turn move the crankshaft, and so
on. Of course, such an engine is, like a
clock, a human artifact with its own distinctive teleology. But the teleology is not what is doing the
explanatory work on this second interpretation of what a mechanical explanation
amounts to. Rather, the idea is that
what illuminates our understanding is coming to see how the behavior of the
whole results from the arrangement and interaction of the parts as they push
and pull against one another.
The problem
with this interpretation, Dijksterhuis points out, is that not all explanations
that came to be regarded as mechanistic actually work this way. For example, Newton was never able to
identify a mechanism by which gravity worked.
And while some at the time were critical of his account of gravity
precisely for that reason, eventually it came to be regarded as a paradigm of
successful mechanistic explanation.
A third
possible interpretation considered by Dijksterhuis holds that a mechanistic conception
of nature is essentially “anti-animistic” in character, in the sense that it
rejects any explanation of a thing’s behavior in terms of some principle internal to it. Contrast this with Aristotle’s view in the Physics that what is natural to a thing
is precisely what does follow from an
internal principle. A mechanistic
explanation, on this interpretation, is one that explains a thing’s behavior in
terms of external factors (whether something pushing or pulling on it, the laws
that govern it, or what have you).
The trouble
with this interpretation, in Dijksterhuis’s view, is that there are mechanistic
explanations that do not operate this way, and Aristotelian explanations that
do operate this way. For example,
inertial motion seems to be motion that springs from an internal principle,
whereas Aristotelian theories of projectile motion appealed to an external
principle. Hence, this cannot be the key
to what sets mechanistic explanations apart from the Aristotelian explanations
they were meant to replace.
A fourth
interpretation takes mechanistic explanation to be explanation modeled on
mechanics, in the sense in which that term came to be used in modern
physics. And mechanics in that sense had
to do with explaining local motion in terms of a mathematical description of
the relations between objects and the laws that govern them. Newtonian mechanics became the paradigm, and
twentieth-century physics took the mathematical approach further still. This is the interpretation Dijksterhuis
endorses, so that he takes the mechanization
of the world picture to amount ultimately to a mathematization of the world picture.
In his
article on “Mechanistic explanation” in The
Cambridge Dictionary of Philosophy, philosopher of science David Hull
rejects this sort of interpretation, on the grounds that many physical
phenomena cannot be explained in terms of mechanics in this sense, but are
still thought to be in some sense explicable mechanistically. Hull writes: “Historically, explanations were
designated as mechanistic to indicate that they included no reference to final
causes or vital forces. In this weak
sense, all present-day scientific explanations are mechanistic” (p. 476 of the
first edition).
Crane’s
account of the mechanical world picture in his book The Mechanical Mind emphasizes both the rejection of final causes
and explanation in terms of mathematically formulated laws of nature. But he also says that pre-modern philosophy
and science were committed to an “organic” conception of nature, whereas
mechanical explanations reject this.
What he means is more or less what Dijksterhuis describes in the third,
“anti-animistic” interpretation of the mechanical philosophy. To common sense, a living thing seems to
operate according to an inner principle, which directs it toward a natural end
or final cause. Pre-modern Aristotelian
thought modeled inorganic substances too on these aspects of living
things. By contrast, the mechanical
world picture starts with inorganic things, understood as devoid of any such
internal principles or final causes. It
then seeks to model all of nature, including living things, on this way of
conceiving of the inorganic.
What should
we think of all this? On the one hand,
all of these suggestions do indeed capture themes that have historically been
associated with the mechanical world picture, even if some of them are more
central to it than others are. On the
other hand, it is not surprising that it should prove difficult to find a
precise and generally accepted definition.
The reason, I would suggest, is that from the beginning, the aim and
content of the mechanical world picture has been more negative than
positive. It is more about what it is
against than what it is for. And what it
is against is Aristotelianism.
In
particular, I would suggest, the idea of giving mechanistic explanations of
natural phenomena was always fundamentally about finding ways to make them
intelligible without reference to anything like substantial forms, intrinsic
teleology, and related ideas in Aristotelian philosophy of nature. The point was to replace this with an
approach that was simpler and allowed for the prediction, control, and
technological exploitation of natural phenomena. The other themes described above were natural
consequences of this.
For example,
machines have only accidental forms rather than substantial forms, and their
teleology or final causes are imposed from outside rather than intrinsic. Their behavior is also typically predictable
and controllable, and, naturally, they exist in order to serve the interests
for which we develop technology. If you
want a non-Aristotelian conception of natural objects that will be useful for
the practical purposes that interested early modern scientists and philosophers,
the machine is a natural model. Into the
bargain, it provided an alternative way to think of the world as dependent on
God – hence Aristotle’s notion of a prime unmoved mover gets replaced by the
notion of a divine machinist – which was important to thinkers who, for all
their hostility to Scholasticism, were still mostly theists (but became less
important as atheism became more common among the intelligentsia).
Since we
understand how machines work by determining what sorts of parts they are made
of and how those parts are arranged and interact with one another, it was only
natural that the mechanical world picture would initially not only think of
natural phenomena on the model of machines, but also think of physical
explanation as a matter of identifying hidden parts and mechanisms. Since the machines with which early modern
thinkers were familiar typically operated by means of parts pushing and pulling
on one another, it was natural that this crude sort of causation would for a
time also be a standard part of the mechanical mode of explanation. Since the teleology of machines and the
arrangements of their parts come from outside them – from the designers and
users of machines – it is only natural that the mechanical world picture would
initially think of natural phenomena as operating according to externally
imposed influences (motion imparted from outside, laws of nature, or what have
you) rather than something intrinsic to them.
Furthermore,
since the most impressive technologies are those that work with mathematical
precision (such as a well-made clock), it was also only natural that the
mechanical world picture would come to favor mathematical models of mechanisms
and mechanical processes. And this approach
would indeed go on to have spectacular success in allowing for the prediction,
control, and technological exploitation of natural processes.
In short, the initial motivation for the mechanical world picture was to develop a non-Aristotelian conception of nature that would facilitate certain practical goals; the machine model was the most promising candidate; that model in turn suggested several further themes, some of which did not last; but the theme of mathematization proved the most fruitful and thus survived and became the model for how to carry out mechanistic explanation. For this reason, as the mechanistic conception of the world developed, it essentially came to be about eschewing anything that smacked of final causality and substantial forms in favor of a mathematical mode of explanation that allowed for strict prediction, control, and technological application – with push-pull causation, the identification of hidden mechanisms, exclusive appeal to external principles of operation, and even the machine analogy itself eventually dropping away as inessential to the mechanical world picture.

It seems pretty clear that the reductionist view of the world looks to only look at what can be measured and quantified. If you can't see and count it, it does not count. Not bad for limited applications, but disastrous as a worldview.
ReplyDeletePerhaps we should just simplify everything and just have two camps: ur-Platonism and ur-materialism. The latter includes everything the former rejects: materialism, reductionism, relativism, materialism, and nominalism. Either everything can ultimately be described by things that emerge from material aggregates, and nothing is fundamentally real beyond these constituents (be they particles or quantum fields), or, there is something more fundamental than the aggregates, such that whole things can be real in a way not described by their aggregates, that the likes of maths, life and meaning transcend the material realm in which we experience them.
ReplyDeletePerhaps over simplistic, but upon which assumption you start with, everything else follows. Both camps agree on material reality, even though the ur-Platonist doesn’t privilege it as the ontological primitive. So the disagreement is purely on the existence of the ontological vertical. Do I exist as an entity, or am I just an illusion that emerges from matter evolved over billions of years? If so, what is experiencing this illusion? Do I have the will to decide anything as a choice, or do I just do what the electrical and chemical reactions in my brain dictate? Is there causal closure, and if so, how was it proven? Were the works of Shakespeare really encoded at the moment of the big bang?
The ur-materialists make some very strange assumptions on the big scale, which make life meaningless but also an incredibly bizarre and unexplainable coincidence. So perhaps it’s no surprise they want to focus on mechanism.
This is just Lloyd Gerson's theory.
Delete"Both camps agree on material reality ... So the disagreement is purely on the existence of the ontological vertical"
DeleteThat is a good point.
Hi Prof
ReplyDeleteThe fallacies of the mechanistic philosophy of the world often emphasized by Prof really illuminated my world view.
Till today, I still find a reason everyday to open Aristotle's Revenge.
A book that should occupy the shelf of any serious person who is interested in the philosophy of nature. Couldn't recommend it more. Cheers Prof. I am grateful.
This is a quote of yours from the notes I make
"If Parmenides and Zeno were correct, then for one thing, we could not trust our senses, since the senses tell us that change occurs and that there are multiple things. Accordingly, the observational and experimental evidence upon which science rests could not be trusted."
Hence I was wondering if something like there being multiple instantiations of an object is significant enough part of our experience such that even if science said it was a illusion for mathematical reasons, we couldn't assent to it because it's something that our senses generally tells us and denying it would undermine the senses.
So my questions is Prof on what grounds would you take something to be significant such that denying it would undermine our senses wholesale ?
Is it the frequency with which it appears in our experience ?
Cause of some for some reasons science rules out the existence of multiple instantiations of the same object how would one respond.
Could one make an argument from there being multiple instantiations of the same scientific instruments and if one denied this one can never be sure if one is using the right instrument since which was the actual instantiationsln of it
Hence I was wondering if something like there being multiple instantiations of an object
DeleteWouldn't you have to decide what counts as "multiple instantiations" of a SAME KIND? Take protons: if a helium atom has 2 "protons", are they really 2 items of the category "protons" or is that merely a convenient label we attach to what are really 2 things similar in some ways and dissimilar in others. Does difference in location or time matter, or not, and if not, WHY? Why are we sure that we can ignore the fact that THIS proton is over here, and THAT proton is over there, when we decide whether they are like or unlike?
Of course, deciding that every possible difference counts would leave it that it is impossible for there to be 2 of "same kind" because in order for there to be 2, they must be distinct SOMEHOW. (This, by the way, is one of the ways St. Thomas proves there can't be 2 Gods, once you properly understand what "God" is.) So even asking the question implies allowing for at least ONE sort of difference (e.g. place) must not count against a finding of likeness.
Hi Tony
DeleteFirst of all , thank you so much for your kind response and taking your precious time to engage substantively with my query. I am grateful.
Well yes, asking the question allows for there being some principle of indiviuation.
However what I wanted to know if there being multiple instantions is crucial to the reliability of our senses.
Like for example Prof says that one denys the possibility of any sort of multiplicity, it would undermine our senses , since they generally gel us there is multiplicity.
What I would want to know is what is his exact criteria for making this determination and whether it can be applied to the case of multiple instantions of the same form. Is it that he occurence of some phenomenon is taken to be so prevalent or common enough in our experience that denying it would inevitably undermine the reliability of our senses even if science has reason to dismiss it .
Even though you are extremely busy , Prof Feser, would appreciate a response :)
The response doesn't have to be huge
DeleteGreetings! Sorry if I'm getting in on the game a little late, but while I'm nowhere near a philosopher on the level of Prof. Feser, maybe I can speculatively shed some light on both of these lines of discussion.
DeleteFirst of all, the rationale behind the traditional Aristotilean categories seem to relevant to the discussion here. Each of them (substance, quantity, quality, relation, place, time, position, state, action, passion) seems to indicate a sort of reality that is either indentifiable on the basis of the senses in the case of the nine accidents, or is necessary for "saving the appearences" in the case of substance.
To Tony's point, this is the way in which Aristotilean Thomists distinguish those "differences" that "count" in the relevant sense and those that don't. For us to be able to refer to a proton or a horse or the like at all, it is necessary that there be a common set of accidents that reveal the underlying substance. Insofar as we have some idea as to the essence of an electron, it will behave in some determinate manner regardless of its location (though at the subatomic level, I understand that location has a rather profound effect on behavior).
To Norm's point, the criterion would be more of a reduction ad absurdum, rather than a positive determination. As Feser is oft to point out, Aristotle asserts that there are some realities so basic that they are more basic than any proof that we can give of them. Anything the denial of which would call our senses into question would fall under this category, so the criterion for the determination seems to be something like this: "if x is true, then our experience is ultimately either contradictory or unintelligible."
While this certainly doesn't answer your question, does it at least help clarify it a bit?
Hi Causal Thomist
DeleteI love the name,
And thank you so much for taking the time to engage with my query.
It means a lot, I often ask Prof a lot of questions here , and sometimes when he doesn't respond, I always feel that my question is very eccentric which is kinda like a downer for me. And he has kindly given me responses before, but on this question he hasn't. The question has been refined a lot actually. I just wish he'd share his thoughts on it
Yes, your statement does clarify it a bit.
"if x is true, then our experience is ultimately either contradictory or unintelligible."
I wanted to know what was X in Prof's view such that the denial of change and multiplicity led him to make this claim
"If Parmenides and Zeno were correct, then for one thing, we could not trust our senses, since the senses tell us that change occurs and that there are multiple things. Accordingly, the observational and experimental evidence upon which science rests could not be trusted.",
And whether we could make the same claim if someone wants to make the same claim if someone denys the existence of possibility ofof multiple instantiations of the same form.
@causal Thomist
DeleteCould you venture a guess as to what criteria Prof was using on the multiplicity thing
Hey Norm!
DeleteThank you for both your response and compliment to my name! Apologies as I didn't know if this thread was still open or not and only just saw your last question. I'll admit that even with the clarifications, its somewhat of a tricky question for me to tackle as I am both a), not Ed Feser, and b), (as Casual would suggest!) not a specialist in quite this area. I will therefore write and see if what comes out at the end has gotten us any closer to an answer!
Right. So with multiplicity, its a fairly easy line of argumentation. I think it was some great Thomist of the twentieth century who said something along the lines of "Aristotle looks out the window, sees change and refutes Parmenides." In other words, the nature of our experience itself makes it impossible to coherently doubt that change and multiplicity exist. We distinguish between different entities in both perception and thought, and we experience being in one state (for example not-in-pain) and then a different state (being in pain). As Feser has pointed out in various places, even were both of these illusory experiences, we would still have something (namely an illusion), which had the characteristics (at least of multiplicity) which we ascribe to them. If we were to say, then, that there is no multiplicity whatsoever, we have to find out some way to account for the multiplicity present in our experienced and thought-about illusion. Any denial would involve rejecting the very "data" which would suggest that there is no multiplicity whatsoever (explaining change would require me to think it out a bit more so I'll spare you that unless you insist on it!). Thus, the denial of multiplicity either requires asserting its opposite (a logical contradiction) or rejecting any possible evidence upon which one could base his position. This is the criterion for following through a reductio ad absurdum argument (which can also be made to someone who argues against the existence of unity or stasis). As is attested by anyone who has encountered the sophmoric skeptic "how do you know?" This is ultimately the only way to defend the basic aspects of our experience, which are so basic that any demonstration presupposes them.
So, onto your question:
"And whether we could make the same claim if someone denies the existence of possibility of multiple instantiations of the same form."
I'm shooting from the hip here a bit, because now we've introduced some metaphysical terms which are in fact denied by many. What you are pointing to is at the heart of the problem of universals, which is one of the major issues that blew the whole Scholastic vision of things apart.
The first thing to say is that no scientific exploration could definitively say that multiple instantiations of the same form is impossible because that is a deeper question than science has the capacity to answer: it is a problem of philosophy of nature and metaphysics, and any scientific view of the matter is NECESSARILY going to have some metaphysical and philnatural assumption about what a thing is and what form is baked into it. For example, Thomists believe that there are forms for which only one instantiation is possible, namely angels. This is because, lacking matter as an individuating principle, these forms can only be instantiated as the subsistence of the form itself, it is metaphysically impossible (I would guess, also not an angelologist) for there to be multiple instantiations of such forms. Thus, a scientific theory would have to provide some (metaphysical) reason why some substantial form could never be instantiated more than once.
(tbc)
(continued)
DeleteAnyhow, that is a bit of a discursus from your question. At the level of perception, it seems like you maybe could conceive of a world where all corporeal things are only individuated once, even if there are larger cosmological reasons that such a world would be in practice impossible. However, science (in fact, coherent knowledge) would be impossible in such a world, mainly because our experience of thing is formed through regularities: we see the way that similar things behave and from them extrapolate the way things work. We would have no "controls" so to speak, for how things behave. In addition, its unclear to me what this would do to our perception of accidents. If we say "substance" and we mean "individual existing thing," then it is actually true that no two substances are the same, insofar as they are individuated differently. It is only insofar as they share the same substantial form that they are the same. Insofar as we have a world populated by accidents which are percieveable to you and me we can have something like sense experience even if we're discovering a different substantial form every time.
Where does this leave your question: I would argue that the existence of multiple instances of a single thing is crucial for our knowledge without being essential to it. Any science that attempted to assert it would be self-refuting, but given that we can argue for it on a basic level, its not quite as fundamentally important as change or multiplicity.
I wanted to know what was X in Prof's view such that the denial of change and multiplicity led him to make this claim
DeleteI would hazard this as a plausible basis: all peoples everywhere make words, and in doing this they use the SAME word for multiple instances / experiences: i.e. they are common names rather than proper names one single instant. (Indeed, if one takes time into account as a basis of difference, making "names" for each single experience as to a single moment of time is an entirely fruitless effort, as it would be impossible to communicate anything by such a system.) And others quickly - naturally - grasp the notion that the word applies to multiple instances. it might be "red" or "hot" or "rock" or "baby", but the recognition of wide applicability is easy and universal. Even an assertion "Ok, our experience is unintelligible" doesn't hold up in light of common agreement on words.
Thank You Soo Much Guys, For these responses.
DeleteI am really grateful.
I will study them properly and respond accordingly.
I have to admit the quality of both these responses are right up there.
Thanks once again.
I don't know if it's what Prof Feser would say or add to it, but I think it ought to make him proud of his commentary box.
Hi Causal Thomist ,
DeleteI agree with what you say about change and multiplicity. They are undeniable as realities , but at the level of perception is our experience of them undeniable as well, in other words why can one say that if we were to deny change and multiplicity our experiences cannot be trusted.
Is it because our senses just "generally" just tell us that.
And what you write about regularities though, would you say that regularities necessarily include multiple instantiations of the same form.
And ciomsider what Prof says here about regularities
"None of this is consistent with the idea that science is concerned with
cataloguing observed regularities. But it is consistent, in Cartwright’s
view, with the Aristotelian picture of science as in the business of
uncovering the hidden nature of things. Actual experimental practice
indicates that what physicists are really looking for are the powers a
thing will manifest when interfering conditions are removed, and the
fact that a few experiments, or even a single controlled experiment,
are taken to establish the results in question indicates that these
powers are taken to reflect a nature that is universal to things of that
type. Writes Cartwright: “Modern experimental physics looks at the
world under precisely controlled or highly contrived circumstance;
and in the best of cases, one look is enough. That, I claim, is just how
one looks for natures."
So are regularities necessary to science.
Hi Tony,
DeleteWould it be possible in some eccentric way to argue that all these multiple instances are actually one instance and it just appears to us as multiple instances?
Would you like to share some thoughts Prof ;)
Delete@Norm
DeleteGlad this has been fruitful for you! Hopefully this thread will still be open when I type this. I think that the term "regularities" is best understood phenomenologically, rather than as a basic metaphysical category. I would say that yes, scientifically, what we might describe experientially as regularity (I drop two different pencils, and they both fall) is only explicable in reference to the underlying forms and the powers by which they manifest. There's still a bit of ambiguity in your question which makes it hard to answer: what exactly do you mean by "multiple instantiations of the same form?"
If you mean multiple instantiations of the same substantial form (apologies if this all gets italicized again; I'm not very experienced with blogspot!) that would be one thing. In that case, we're thinking about a world full of different "things," (i.e, we only have one pin-oak, and one dog and one potato). If this is what you mean, then no, regularities don't necessarily include multiple instantiations of the same form. I think that science would still be impossible for the reasons Tony gave, but given continuity of accidental forms, you could still possible have something like sense experience.
If by "multiple instantiations" you mean accidents, which by the way include operations, then not only would sense experience be impossible, but so too would the existence of any of the things we know, which rely for their subsistence on multiple operations and expressions (even a simple electron would still move in different manners at different moments, I would think!). Furthermore, given that there could only ever be one "red," and other accidents, causality would be impossible given that it takes place through communication of form.
Which leads us right to your last question: its not that our experience tells us "generally" that change and multiplicity exist, its rather that change and multiplicity are necessary conditions for us to have any experience at all. Each and every experience we have is premised on a "before" and "after" that allows us to distinguish one aspect of our experience from another. Perception, memory, and the like are impossible except based on at the very least the appearance of the difference between various things. I know I'm rehashing AR a bit here, but I think its relevant to the question about experience for the same reason. It is an axiomatic dictum of Aristotilean thinking that there is nothing that is in the intellect which is not first in the senses. Our experience is the product, not of the intellect alone, but of the body-soul composite. It is only the reality of the senses which brings us into a direct encounter with multiplicity and change, and in fact without our sense experience we would not even be able to identify them in ourselves. Our lived experience is always fundamentally relational insofar as it is only the presence of the physical world in ourselves (through sense, memory, etc), which allows us to be aware of ourselves (the denial of this is one of the most dangerous moves made in the history of thought). Thus, it is precisely because of what the denial of change and multiplicity would do to our experience that we must reject it. Indeed, it would require denying the very experience which we would need as evidence of it in the first place.
If by "multiple instantiations" you mean accidents, which by the way include operations, then not only would sense experience be impossible, but so too would the existence of any of the things we know, which rely for their subsistence on multiple operations and expressions (even a simple electron would still move in different manners at different moments, I would think!).
DeleteCould you elaborate what you mean by multiple operations and expressions and how that would make sense experience impossible
Hey @causalthomist where you at :)
DeleteThe "hands of time" keep ticking away. But, time has no hands. Clocks do. So do people. Clocks feed our obsessions with what is happening, and, the greater the obsessions, the larger they become. This is exponential. We assert we never have enough time. That is oxymoronic. We always, and in all ways "have" time. We just want more, see...so we can drive ourselves even crazier than we ever were...
ReplyDeleteExcellent review of Crane's book
ReplyDeletehttps://commons.pacificu.edu/assets/hypothesis/web/viewer.html?file=%2Fdownloads%2F4b7b0-jkq93%2Fgorman2rev_8ebb0321-a7dc-41f9-9f57-19582f1d6f88.p
Since we understand how machines work by determining what sorts of parts they are made of and how those parts are arranged and interact with one another,
ReplyDeleteThe great success atomic theory had for 200 years helps explain why this account of "what science is" took such a strong hold. However, the philosophic and epistemic underpinnings of the idea that "we understand X by taking it apart and understanding its parts" have been mostly unconsidered by said scientists. In particular, (a) it notionally assumes that there are always more parts below the current layer being looked at. (b) It implies an infinite regress of "understanding the parts", i.e. we could NEVER truly claim to understand anything at all because we have not (ever) gotten down to the "ultimate" parts that...don't have parts - because we have (assumed) a stance that there CAN'T BE an ultimate physical unit that doesn't have parts to "explain" it (i.e. a unit that requires a different kind of account than "what are its parts"). Indeed, atomism in its original form posited "infinitely small" parts, each having (i) no parts, and (ii) its own special nature, by fiat, i.e. without explanatory possibility, (thereby demanding effectively the worst of both worldview types). And (c) it has been, for some 70 years, more and more clear (with quantum field "superpositions" and statistically determinable results but not individually trackable determinate causes) that in fact you DON'T truly keep getting smaller and smaller "parts" that constitute "the thing" the way spatial parts aggregate to a larger whole - and the failure of the paradigm of "investigate the parts" at this level is an indicator of the paradigm being at least incomplete, if not just wrong.
I think there is something to the idea that the early moderns were opposed to the idea of inanimate objects moving to their natural place of their own accord. Even though Aristotle distinguished between the motions of animate and inanimate objects it seems many early moderns criticized the description of inanimate motion as implying that inanimate objects actually did "seek" to move to their natural place. Would have to "know" where that natural place was in order to move to it. And so they in effect had to have little minds or little souls in order to know and seek.
ReplyDeleteAristotle makes clear in De Anima that this is not the case, but the early moderns rejected his explanation. Today if you try to say that objects in motion "seek" to stay in motion unless acted upon by another force I suspect you will raise eyebrows just by using that word.
But because location and motion is relative, even "objects at rest 'seek' to stay at rest is no less problematic for them. The innate inertial resistance to motion still has to be accounted for by something OTHER than motion, that is, a different kind of account, not just a different agent.
DeleteRight.
DeleteFor every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
But how does the object being acted upon "know" it is being acted upon and so must exert an opposite force? It seems Newton just changed the phraseology from active to passive tense to avoid being viewed as an Aristotelian. I think I recall that he even admitted that he used passive tense to avoid having to answer the mechanism behind it.
@bmiller: "Today if you try to say that objects in motion "seek" to stay in motion unless acted upon by another force I suspect you will raise eyebrows just by using that word."
DeleteI thought that in Thomism, no corporeal object can be in motion unless it is moved by the First Unmoved Mover. So the "seeking" is not autonomous. No object can move but that the FUM moves it, and no object can remain in any state unless the FUM causes it to remain in that state. So what room is left for the corporeal object's "seeking"? We either have occasionalism or deism, but not something in between. You can't have a first mover that is not always the first mover.
ficino4ml,
DeletePer Aristotle's physics, things move in 2 ways, naturally and violently. We don't classify motion like this today but we can think about it in this way: Natural movement occurs when things aren't colliding and violent movement occurs when they do. So things that are falling are moving naturally, while billiard balls move violently when you make a shot.
Things that move naturally are either animate or inanimate. Animate things like us can start, stop and change directions when we choose to. inanimate objects cannot. Inanimate objects move because of the kind of thing they are and the kind of thing they are cannot make decisions. Today we say they are the kind of thing are is a kind that has mass and so is affected by gravity and inertia.
I'm sure you've read Professor Feser explain many times that although the First Mover is the primarily cause of all movement, that does not mean that material objects cannot be the moved by secondary causes.
To answer your question directly, the First Unmoved Mover sometimes directly moves material objects and is at other times is ultimately responsible for a material object's motion by keeping it in existence as the kind of thing that moves naturally according to the type of thing that it is.
and is at other times is ultimately responsible for a material object's motion by keeping it in existence as the kind of thing that moves naturally according to the type of thing that it is.
DeleteSt. Thomas held that the creative action of God in creating ex nihilo is a revealed truth that could not be established by natural reason. It was my sense that Aristotle's argument only regarded the First Unmoved Mover's action as first as regards being the agent that causes the action by which any specific natural being comes to be by natural motions, e.g. generation of a plant or animal. This would not regard a putative activity of that First Unmoved Mover in sustaining the material order itself in continuation of the creative action of calling it into being.
Tony,
DeleteI'm not sure if you're agreeing or disagreeing. Aristotle attributed all change in the universe to the Unmoved Mover including generation to corruption and everything in between.
Aristotle attributed all change in the universe to the Unmoved Mover including generation to corruption and everything in between.
DeleteRight. But did he attribute the universe's very existence to the FUM? He held the universe to exist forever, and I think St. Thomas argued that while this position is wrong, this is known only through revelation.
My answer was meant to apply to any particular material object not the entire universe, that's why I mentioned generation and corruption. It's an interesting question what Aristotle would have speculated if the FUM ceased to cause motion. When molecules cease movement we get absolute zero temperature, but what happens to atoms if electrons cease to move?
Delete@bmiller: yes, I have read the Prof's explanations, and you and I have talked about this stuff before. I agree with your statement that in AT, the First Mover is the primary cause of all movement. I also agree that objects can be moved by secondary movers/causes. In your last paragraph, you allow that the FUM is ultimately responsible for material objects' natural movement, while the FUM sometimes moves material objects directly. So the FUM is "ultimately responsible" for every instance of movement, no?
ReplyDeleteYes, the FUM is ultimately responsible for every instance of movement in the sense I put forward if I correctly understand Thomism. If not, I'm sure someone will let me know what I got wrong.
DeleteYou asked what room is left for the corporeal object's "seeking"? without reality being either occasionalism or deism. The Thomist answer is concurrentism. Hopefully I didn't give the impression that objects can move on their own without God's involvement.
@bmiller, adding: I think the tricky part comes in trying to square the absolute primacy of the FUM in any series of movers ordered hierarchically per se with the motive power of ensouled, subordinate movers. Calvinists just deny free will. Thomists can't rest content with Molinism. After all these years, I remain unconvinced that a marriage of a FUM and a creature's "free will" can stand without fudging the meaning of one of the terms. Why don't Thomists just say that humans don't have free will but yet are responsible for their actions, thus denying "ought implies can" as Calvinists do?
Deleteficino4ml,
DeleteThanks for clarifying that what you find troubling about this is how God can keep us in existence and yet we have free will (I know this is not phrased precisely in terms of motion but I think it does boil down to this). I couldn't tell until your latest post what you thought the problem was.
I wonder how you define "free will". It seems to me that some reason that they know they have free will, but that free will would be an illusion if something other than themselves was responsible for their own existence. So either they are eternally existent (like the Mormons hold) or God make them but once they're made, God is out of the loop (like Deism). The problem I see with the former is if I always existed, why can't I remember that? The problem with the latter, is what exactly keeps me in existence since I know that it's not me?
I also know that I am not free to sprout wings and fly around, so there are limits on my free will in any case. The limits seem to be related to the type of being that I am.
So maybe an analogy is that of a student being sent off to college with the Dad paying the bills. The Dad expects certain behavior but the student can make bad choices. The student is free to do what he wants at the college but ultimately the Dad is allowing him to actually be a student.
Why don't Thomists just say that humans don't have free will but yet are responsible for their actions
DeletePerhaps because that is at least as repugnant as the problem you are stuck at.
Saying we don't have free will requires denying our immediate, direct apprehension of our choices, i.e. saying what appears to be free, isn't. That road has a number of concerns, including (1) what evidence leads us to conclude that our direct observations are flawed & misleading, and (2) if we were to establish that our direct experience of free choice is mistaken, how could our direct experience of anything else be held reliable (e.g. sense impressions) and be proof against the same sort of undermining?
@Tony: among Calvinists there is some disagreement over the import of dicta like that of the Westminster Confession, which declares that "God from all eternity did by the most and holy counsel of his own will, freely and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass; yet so as thereby neither is God the author of sin; nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures, nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established." It goes on next to reject what we would call Molinism: "Although God knows whatsoever may or can come to pass, upon all supposed conditions; yet hath he not decreed any thing because he foresaw it as future, as that which would come to pass, upon such conditions."
DeleteA Thomist may think that a Calvinist statement of faith has no bearing on anything important, but the above does show that others grappled with the same problem of squaring God's sovereignty with creatures' willed decisions. I think the above relies on non-standard senses of words. E.g. is the causal agency of a secondary cause at "liberty," so that its effects are "contingent," when the secondary cause gets its power from prior causes in a series ordered hierarchically per se? The secondary cause does work, but I don't see how it operates except as it is determined to operate by the first cause, which controls the entire series.
What exactly would look different if we have free will versus us not having free will?
Delete@Anonymous: I would guess that nothing would look different to us "on the ground" as we experience ourselves making decisions.
DeleteMy issue is, it seems to me that those versions of classical theism are incoherent that posit a single, first unmoved mover (it alone being Pure Act) and creatures' free will. The theist might argue that acts of will are not motions, so that the creature's will can be free, AND that these acts are predestined by God = FUM. I.e. God predestines the outcomes but does not move the creature's will. Right now I don't see how that strategy will work without relying on equivocation, but I could just be failing to understand Aquinas.
E.g. is the causal agency of a secondary cause at "liberty," so that its effects are "contingent," when the secondary cause gets its power from prior causes in a series ordered hierarchically per se? The secondary cause does work, but I don't see how it operates except as it is determined to operate by the first cause, which controls the entire series.
DeleteLet me offer one small insight I received from someone ages ago as (potentially?) a help to grasp the agency involved. Say a man is wildly fighting with another unjustly, you are a police officer, and God wants, intends, and wills that you wade in, using your billyclub to subdue the guy, and you do exactly that. God is the ultimate source of your arm, your strength, your willingness to use the club, and your motion to raise and lower it, and the justice achieved by quelling an evil aggression. But you, in your heart, conceive to act not solely out of justice and protection of peace, but out of hatred for the guy. God is the first cause of everything about the action but that hatred, the hatred in its defection from God's good order is wholly yours. Thus God is the cause of everything but moral defect.
Attach also to this account the second piece, linking in St. Paul's
And we know that in all things God works for the good of those who love him, who have been called according to his purpose. (Romans 8:28)
So even the surface evils, sufferings of the physical order, that are suffered by the saints are meant by God for their good, and so are evils in a sense but good as to the scheme of the entire order intended. Thus God was also the cause of the motion of the Roman soldiers' wielding swords for killing Christian martyrs, just not the evil in their hearts. ("As for you, you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good,") The only things that happen which God does not cause are the moral defections resident in the will assenting to sinful actions - he even causes the physical aspects of those sins, just not the defection of the will. Naturally, in willing the physical accoutrements of sinful choices, he must both know them in advance and will to permit the evil will that attends them, for the sake of a total providential order that he intends.
I acknowledge that this account remains incomplete and perhaps problematic: for example, it doesn't help tell us how the will to hatred, which (seemingly) must entail specific firing of neurons and biochemical processes, can be freely willed and and yet the subject of deterministic physical activity which God causes. But that problem holds ASIDE from whether God is the cause of those physical processes, as their (seemingly) deterministic condition is thought to be at odds with freely willed hatred anyway, so it's a problem under ANY theory of moral responsibility, not just the Catholic Thomist account.
To be honest, I don't see how what you said regarding Calvinists relates to a position that holds moral responsibility but denies free will. Are you saying that's the Calvinist position? If so, what in their theory allows for the responsibility if God not only foresees the evil man's hatred, but actually causes it? How is that not just as repugnant as any other "solution" that doesn't explain the issue? And how does that square with the Bible, which says that God is not the cause of evil? God is light; in him there is no darkness at all. And how does it square with saying "nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures", as it is certainly a kind of violence to CAUSE the will to defect away from the good to which it is properly ordered.
ficino4ml,
DeleteIf I recall correctly when we discussed this in the past, I offered a quote from the SCG in which Aquinas notes that Plato considered the movement of the will a motion, while Aristotle's definition of motion concerned only the motion of material objects. Aquinas concluded that there was no actual disagreement between the 2 since the First Way is only meant, by Aristotle, to establish a First Unmoved Mover of the material sort that we can perceive by our senses. So indeed, the argument is not that the will is being moved directly by anything physical.
The will causes the the animate being to move physically toward what is considered a good for the being, but that is posited to be a normal attraction to the Good, not a forceful action of the Good upon the animate being.
This seems like a coherent explanation to me. Do you see incoherent this far, or is it the further idea of predestination that you see as the problem?
Hello Tony, thank yo for your reply and the thought you put into it.
DeleteAs for Calvinists-- it's been decades since i was into Calvinism, but there are different Calvinist "takes" on free will. AFAIK they agree that creatures are morally responsible, so as to be rewarded or punished, that unregenerated humans do not have the power to do righteous deeds--their will is enslaved to their "sin nature"--that we do not experience a force from God controlling our decisions, and that God predestines the elect and the damned. As I recall, different theologians have what to outsiders probably seem only slight differences over how "free" we can say the will is, when all outcomes are predestined by God. That's why I said that Calvinists hold to moral responsibility but deny free will. It seems to me that this is what their position commits them to hold. After all, the Calvinists I knew expressly taught that infants who are not of "the elect" go to hell. No limbus infantium or the like. They go to hell because that's where their sin nature, inherited from Adam, makes to be their proper place.
I was for a time in a Calvinist seminary (haha, don't ask). When I asked my mentor about the PoE, he said it's not a problem. As God creates matter but is not material, so God creates evil but is not evil. He cited Isaiah 45:7. He did not use the term, "cause," but I think he'd have to say that "God causes evil" and "God creates evil" are interentailing.
Enough about Calvinists. I've already written too much in this combox, so I can't respond to everything else in your last. I'll just suggest that
1) if we consider a thesis or what follows from it to be repugnant, it may yet not be false;
2) yes, determinism poses puzzles (or problems) for any moral theory, but the Thomist has the job of squaring his moral theory with a maximalistic theory about causality;
3) your image of the policeman may need more unpacking. As you note, there are physical processes involved in animals' psychic operations. I continue to find it mysterious how creatures' acts have freedom and contingency when AT makes the motions of even the smallest corpora -- e.g. particles that make up neurons, etc etc -- determined by the FUM. Surely Thomists don't say, "de minimis nihil curat Deus," do they?
One might appeal to a spiritual soul, but without the body, the soul is manquée, no? Moreover, the non-Thomist will say that doctrines about the spiritual soul are in this context unevidenced assumptions, so we need to be convinced that those assumptions are true if they are to serve as premises in an argument that the will is free in a robust sense.
Phew.
@bmiller: Aargh, once again I have posed a question, the answer to which leads into thickets of scholarly controversy. To confront those thickets as they deserve would demand writing a publishable paper.
DeleteI am not a specialist on Aristotle, but colleagues of mine are so, and I am not a novice. For now I'll just toss out a few thoughts about problems:
1. Ari holds to an eternal universe, and Aquinas to a created universe. Already the two are working with different models, since the relation of the spheres to the unmoved movers in Aristotle is not identical to that of the separated substances to God in Aquinas.
2. As we discussed a year or more ago, phantasia is necessary for rational thought in Aristotle. But phantasia is a faculty of embodied soul tied to perception. Ari's discussions of recollection give a picture of interaction between body and faculties of soul. Anything that involves body involves reduction of something corporeal from potency to act by something else already in act. I can't do a word study now on whether Ari uses "kinesis" to refer to what happens in recollection, but I think the role of the body in "mental" acts can't be dismissed. When we talk about the will, we talk about a drive toward what our phantasia presents to us, so we can't discount body. Thus, we have to explain how acts of will are NOT in some sense motions.
3. As I said elsewhere, Aquinas allows that God at times directly determines the decisions of some creature's will, e.g. Pharaoh. But if sometimes, then there is nothing other than God's pleasure that excludes "always." And God's pleasure cashes out as God's efficient causality of X or not-X, as the case may be.
I don't here address predestination. But as you intimate, that's another level of puzzle. it seems counterintuitive to say that God predestines X but does not cause X.
ficino4ml,
DeleteThanks for the reply.
Regarding motion and the will, I don't think I would disagree much with what you wrote. Humans are form/matter composites and so Aristotle classified us as moving movers in that we move things but are also moved due to our corporality. That is the reasoning behind the requirement for the incorporal Unmoved Mover of the First Way.
Regarding your 1, yes I agree that Aquinas didn't agree entirely with Aristotle on the separated substances. Not sure what incoherence this causes.
Regarding your 3. Aquinas allows that God can occasionally intervene in nature at times but just because He can do so occasionally does not mean that He must do so always.
ficino4ml,
DeleteLet me try this. Do you see these 2 propositions being the problem at the heart of the Thomist account of the Unmoved Mover and free will?
#1
God causes all motion
We move
God causes all of our motion
#2
Moving freely means we are entirely responsible for our movement
We move freely
God is not responsible for our movement.
How can God be responsible for all our motion and at the same time not be responsible for all our motion?
@bmiller, replying to your two most recent:
Deletere separated substances, God's causality is efficient as well as final in Thomas, no? But Ari's FUM does not operate upon the spheres except as a final cause. I am not sure whether that difference in models matters for the present discussion.
to my 3: I think "occasionally" and "must" bear a lot of weight and need to be considered re implications. One case where God directs a rational creature's will is sufficient to demonstrate that the claim, "the rational creature's will is free," is not a universal proposition but at best, only true "for the most part." What are the implications of that?
Perhaps an analogy would be with Elisha's axe head. In AT, by nature, being of "earth," the axe head seeks to rest at the center of the cosmos, below water. To make it rise through the water was the miracle. But average metal objects do not seek the center in AT autonomously from the FUM. If they do, we don't need the FUM to account for motion and change. How far can this analogy be applied to the will's relation to the FUM?
In your second reply, I agree overall with your formulation of the dilemma that I think follows in AT. I wonder, though, whether precision might be gained by replacing "we/our" with "rational creatures' will." Then we are forced to nail down whether "will," or "arbitrium," is moved in any standard AT sense of "be moved," i.e. for some x to be brought from potentially F to actually F by something that is already actually F.
ficino4ml,
DeleteYes, I agree that Thomas claims that God is the efficient as well as final cause of the separated substances. It seems to be a refinement of Aristotle's position.
Not sure I follow how a miracle would invalidate nature if that is what you are getting at. Maybe it would be useful to understand what is meant by "free will". As the Stones said "you don't always get what you want" so if you don't, does that mean you don't have free will? Or if you change your mind at the last minute?
Regarding the dilemma: It makes sense to emphasize it's rational creatures we are talking about. Do you think the problem lies in how AT models the operations of the intellect and will? It seems the dilemma is still a dilemma even if one rejects Thomism. Do you have a solution that you favor?
@bmiller: In a paper in Philosophers' Imprint, Tobias Hoffman and Cyril Michon say that liberum arbitrium "is precisely the power to make choices between alternative possibilities." That's in line with Aristotle's thesis that prohairesis, moral choice is εφ' ἡμῖν, "in our power." Aquinas as I remember talks about the will as moved by the intellect. But the intellect is the rational creature's intellect. So we have a story about free will, liberum arbitrium, in AT, that the will makes choices autonomously, not determined by anything but the creature's intellect.
DeleteIf those choices are "motions," and if the FUM is the mover of all motions, then Thomism (I won't pronounce on Aristotelianism) has a discrepancy. The FUM is the first cause of all motions and is not the first cause of all motions.
Aristotle was all in for the freedom of human choices. I don't think Aristotle had a doctrine of "will" as distinct from intellect, but that may not matter now. For Aristotle, our moral choices, προαιρέσεις, are in our power, εφ' ἡμιν. (can't figure out how to type circumflex accent onto this blog). Alexander of Aphrodisias wrote a whole treatise to this effect against the Stoics' determinism.
But primum movens apud Aristotelem nihil curat de minimis. That is not true for St. Thomas. If your decision to wear a blue shirt and not a pink shirt is NOT determined in some way by the FUM, then it is not the case that all motions are determined by a chain of causes going back to the FUM. You either have to prove that your decision about shirts is not a motion of soul or you must give up the conjunction of "the FUM moves all motions" and "the will is moved freely to choose X."
Many people define free will as the power to choose among alternatives. We might provisionally adopt that definition.
DeleteIf the FUM moves the rational creature's will, then the rational creature does not have the power to choose among alternatives; the rational creature only chooses the alternative that the FUM moves it to choose. Would you agree that IF the FUM moves the rational creature's will, then the rational creature has the power to choose only the alternative which the FUM moves it to choose? And, conversely, that if the rational creature is able to choose either A or B, then the FUM is not moving it to choose either A or B but is exerting no causal power/virtue upon the rational creature?
If your answer to the last is Yes, then it seems you hold either A) that the FUM is not the first unmoved mover of every moved "thing" or
B) that choices of rational creatures are not motions.
Does this dilemma seem to capture the issues?
ficino4ml,
DeleteYour statement of the dilemma captures the issues but I think the problem as stated is not restricted to the theory of the FUM. If we had never heard of Aristotles theory we would still be faced with apparent determinism against apparent free will.
It seems there have been philosophers that have tried to resolve the dilemma by embracing one or the other of the 2 horns while denying the other horn as illusory. Such as the eliminative materialists on the one hand and certain easter philosophies on the other.
I get the impression that although you want to argue against the AT solution you also don't embrace either horn of the dilemma to the exclusion of the other. That's why I'm curious if you've found what you consider a better solution to the dilemma.
@bmiller: I have no clue whether determinism or a "liberum arbitrium" position is true! As I said to another commentator, I am guessing that our experience "on the ground" of making choices would seem the same either way.
DeleteHere is something from the paper I mentioned, by Hoffman and Michon: "absolutely first origin of its
act. Like all created causes, it can cause something only insofar as it is
in turn moved by God, who is the creative cause not only of the human being but also of her volitions (QDP 3.7 c., p. 58; ST 1a2ae.6.1 ad 1 and
ad 3). Aquinas distinguishes between the primary cause, which is
God, and secondary causes, which are created causes; and he holds
that secondary causes can act only inasmuch as they are acted on by
the primary cause (e.g., QDP 3.7, ST 1a.105.5)."
OK, so you haven't formed an opinion on the matter aside from seeing some problem with the Thomist account. Since you quoted the H and M paper citing primary and secondary causes is the problem you see that secondary causes cannot be considered free choices?
DeleteOr is it that you think the FUM must be physically pushing, pulling or twisting creatures in order to cause them to move?
@bmiller: H&M in fact argue that St. Thomas' thinking, although not focused on the question as we frame it today, upholds libertarian free will against even compatibilism, let alone against determinism. They argue that, since the will is moved by the intellect, if, when we make acts of intellect, we are in turn moved by something outside our intellect, then our acts of will are likewise determined. But our intellect is not so moved. Therefore, they say, the position of St. Thomas boils down to holding that our will is not moved by another agent. They do not get into what I think may be a problem with the scope of the FUM's operations.
DeleteThanks for mentioning the paper. I'm reading it now but haven't finished.
DeleteEarly in the paper I see primary and secondary causation being discussed:
"For Aquinas the will is, metaphysically speaking, not the absolutely first origin of its act. Like all created causes, it can cause something only insofar as it is in turned moved by God, who is the creative cause not only of the human being but also of her volitions..."*
"We may say that, in his view, God is the absolutely ultimate source of a human being's actions. Yet, for Aquinas, God does not coerce the human being's acts, for if he did, God would not move her will but he would move the person against her will...So Aquinas leaves room for the agent being the ultimate source of her own actions in the order of secondary causality, although she is not the absolute ultimate source of her action (the terminology is ours)" *
They also state that contemporary philosophers distinguish only between sourcehood (in general) and ultimate sourcehood of a willing agent-meaning a person is the ultimate source of her action and it is not caused by something else.
It seems to me that if one uses the contemporary definition a dilemma can be seen that is not seen within the Thomist account of primary and secondary causation.
So far as I've read I haven't seen the authors reject the Thomist account.
*QDP and ST citations omitted since I couldn't cut and paste from the article.
@ficino4ml:
Delete"If the FUM moves the rational creature's will, then the rational creature does not have the power to choose among alternatives; the rational creature only chooses the alternative that the FUM moves it to choose."
If I am understanding you right, St. Thomas explicitly denies what you are holding:
ST PP Q83, objection 3 reads not very unlike your own:
"Further, what is "free is cause of itself," as the Philosopher says (Metaph. i, 2). Therefore what is moved by another is not free. But God moves the will, for it is written (Proverbs 21:1): "The heart of the king is in the hand of the Lord; whithersoever He will He shall turn it" and (Philippians 2:13): "It is God Who worketh in you both to will and to accomplish." Therefore man has not free-will."
His answer:
"Free-will is the cause of its own movement, because by his free-will man moves himself to act. But it does not of necessity belong to liberty that what is free should be the first cause of itself, as neither for one thing to be cause of another need it be the first cause. God, therefore, is the first cause, Who moves causes both natural and voluntary. And just as by moving natural causes He does not prevent their acts being natural, so by moving voluntary causes He does not deprive their actions of being voluntary: but rather is He the cause of this very thing in them; for He operates in each thing according to its own nature."
God's causality is not intra-world causality. If I cause you to do something, of its very nature I am coercing you to do something (maybe there are exceptions to this rule, I just do not know of any). But God is not "coercing" anything out of anyone, but in moving oneself to act, the motion of necessity requires God's First motion. You seem to want to say that this precludes the will being free, but I do not see any cogent argument for it. Of course, you can indeed complain that this causality is unlike anything else in the created order. A Thomist will say, "Sure, that is the whole point". Someone else unsympathetic to it will conjure all sorts of ad hoc-ery accusations. Being in the first camp I am unmoved (pun intended) by such accusations.
@grodrigues: question begging.
Deleteficino4ml,
DeleteOK I think I get the gist of the paper. There are some that argue that Aquinas was a compatibilist and the paper argues against that position. Specifically they contend that Aquinas was an incompatibilist concerning intellectual determinism. But I don't see them agreeing with with this particular statement:
If the FUM moves the rational creature's will, then the rational creature does not have the power to choose among alternatives; the rational creature only chooses the alternative that the FUM moves it to choose.
The authors cite the same section of the ST that grodrigues provided as an explanation of how Aquinas considers the FUM in relation to a rational creature's free-will. God is responsible for the existing rational creature's nature and so in that respect is the first cause of the creature's motion, but it is the nature of rational creatures to choose to move themselves. So the FUM does not move the creature to make any particular choices per the above concern.
It seems obvious to me that the movement of some things like rocks can be mathematically determined and that the movement of other things like us cannot. Commitment to the mechanical world picture has given philosophers plenty of work trying to explain how the obvious is actually really confusing.
@bmiller: agreed, H&M do not conclude that if the FUM is first mover of the rational creature's will, then the rational creature does not have the power to choose the alternative to which the FUM does not move its (the creature's) will.
DeleteI have not plumbed to the depths of the problem, but it seems to me that St. Thomas' argument in ST 1a 83.1 ad 3, which grodrigues cited, begs the question. By analogy with natural causes, Thomas concludes that God is first moving cause of the will, but the will is still "cause of itself" because God operates in each thing according to its "proprietatem." Thomas needs the tacit premise to be true, sc. "the will is cause of itself." But this is just the issue in question. So his reply seems to beg the controversial premise.
Maybe another puzzle is whether Thomas equivocates on "cause of itself." You would think that if x is a secondary cause in a hierarchically ordered series of causes, x is not cause of itself. So if the human will is a secondary and NOT first cause, AND is cause of itself, it is mysterious what "cause of itself" means. Secondary causes aim to bring about a given end only when moved to do so by the first cause. ???
ficino4ml,
DeleteThis is another citation from the paper:
Questiones Disputatae de Veritate-Question Twenty-Four: Free Choice
3. God works in each agent, and in accord with that agent’s manner of acting, just as the first cause operates in the operation of a secondary cause, since the secondary cause cannot become active except by the power of the first cause. By the fact, then, that God is a cause working in the hearts of men, human minds are not kept from being the cause of their own motions themselves. Hence the note of freedom is not taken away.
4. The first cause is called the principal cause, absolutely speaking, because it has the greater influence upon the effect. But the secondary cause is called the principal cause in a certain respect, inasmuch as the effect is more conformed to it.
5. An instrument is spoken of in two ways: (1) Properly—when something is so moved by another that there is not conferred upon it by the mover any principle of such a motion, as a saw is moved by the carpenter. Such an instrument is wholly without freedom. (2) More commonly whatever moves something and is moved by another is called an instrument, whether there is in it the principle of its own motion or not. In this sense it is not necessary for the notion of freedom to be wholly excluded from that of an instrument, because something can be moved by another and still move itself. This is the case with the human mind.
Does help clarify what you were seeing as equivocation?
@grodrigues: adding, you use the following locutions: "You seem to want to say ... you can indeed complain ... Someone else unsympathetic to it will conjure all sorts of ad hoc-ery accusations."
DeleteNo professional philosopher I know addresses interlocutors this way. Do you think such rhetoric strengthens an argument, as if we have to do with proving who is stronger? I urge a focus on the arguments and claims as such.
@bmiller: Re 5.(2): I think the saint is obfuscating. Maybe I simply fail to understand him. It is contentious that an agent can be moved by another -- esp. when that other is THE FIRST UNMOVED MOVER -- and can move itself. Why should anyone accept this assertion?
Delete@ficino4ml:
Delete"No professional philosopher I know addresses interlocutors this way."
Maybe, but then again I am not a professional philosopher so I am excused.
"Do you think such rhetoric strengthens an argument, as if we have to do with proving who is stronger?"
What do you think "You seem to want to say ... you can indeed complain ... Someone else unsympathetic to it will conjure all sorts of ad hoc-ery accusations" means besides (1) "As I understand you, you are saying" (2) "It is indeed a valid complaint but" and (3) "Someone else unsympathetic to the Saint will say that this is an ad hoc move; understandable but" etc. and etc. Doesn't fit the canons of a professional philosophy paper? Fine, and?
"I urge a focus on the arguments and claims as such."
Do you? Really? Then why the scolding? "Question begged" laconic as it is, sufficed. And now the dialectic has changed from a contradiction argument to a disputation over whatever you think St. Thomas is begging. An improvement, I would say.
ficino4ml,
DeleteHere's another citation from the paper:
Questiones Disputatae de Veritate-Q. III: ARTICLE VII
Does God Work in Operations of Nature?
It gives 16 arguments giving a negative answer to that question covering a variety of contentions. Each is answered. But this is the part of the summary that pertains to what you think may be obfuscation:
It must be observed that one thing may be the cause of another’s action in several ways. First, by giving it the power to act: thus it is said that the generator moves heavy and light bodies, inasmuch as it gives them the power from which that movement results. In this way God causes all the actions of nature, because he gave natural things the forces whereby they are able to act, not only as the generator gives power to heavy and light bodies yet does not preserve it, but also as upholding its very being, forasmuch as he is the cause of the power bestowed, not only like the generator in its becoming, but also in its being; and thus God may be said to be the cause of an action by both causing and upholding the natural power in its being. For secondly, the preserver of a power is said to cause the action; thus a remedy that preserves the sight is said to make a man see. But since nothing moves or acts of itself unless it be an unmoved mover; thirdly, a thing is said to cause another’s action by moving it to act: whereby we do not mean that it causes or preserves the active power, but that it applies the power to action, even as a man causes the knife’s cutting by the very fact that he applies the sharpness of the knife t6 cutting by moving it to cut. And since the lower nature in acting does not act except through being moved, because these lower bodies are both subject to and cause alteration: whereas the heavenly body causes alteration without being subject to it, and yet it does not cause movement unless it be itself moved, so that we must eventually trace its movement to God, it follows of necessity that God causes the action of every natural thing by moving and applying its power to action.
Continued in next comment...
Continued from previous comment:
DeleteFurthermore we find that the order of effects follows the order of causes, and this must needs be so on account of the likeness of the effect to its cause. Nor can the second cause by its own power have any influence on the effect of the first cause, although it is the instrument of the first cause in regard to that effect: because an instrument is in a manner the cause of the principal cause’s effect, not by its own form or power, but in so far as it participates somewhat in the power of the principal cause through being moved thereby: thus the axe is the cause of the craftsman’s handiwork not by its own form or power, but by the power of the craftsman who moves it so that it participates in his power. Hence, fourthly, one thing causes the action of another, as a principal agent causes the action of its instrument: and in this way again we must say that God causes every action of natural things. For the higher the cause the greater its scope and efficacity: and the more efficacious the cause, the more deeply does it penetrate into its effect, and the more remote the potentiality from which it brings that effect into act. Now in every natural thing we find that it is a being, a natural thing, and of this or that nature. The first is common to all beings, the second to all natural things, the third to all the members of a species, while a fourth, if we take accidents, into account, is proper to this or that individual. Accordingly this or that individual thing cannot by its action produce another individual of the same species except as the instrument of that cause which includes in its scope the whole species and, besides, the whole being of’ the inferior creature. Wherefore no action in these lower bodies attains to the production of a species except through the power of the heavenly body, nor does anything produce being except by the power of God. For being is the most common first effect and more intimate than all other effects: wherefore it is an effect which it belongs to God alone to produce by his own power: and for this reason (De Causis, prop. ix) an intelligence does not give being, except the divine power be therein. Therefore God is the cause of every action, inasmuch as every agent is an instrument of the divine power operating.
Your contention looks like objection 14. What do you think?
You once commented about the Libet experiment, saying that Free Will is compatible with automatic acts such as how in that moment, you were not "commanding my mouth to open and now close while I speak", and that that somehow refuted the Libet experiment. Can you please explain?
ReplyDeleteThis is not specifically about the Libet experiment, but more broadly about any attempt to disprove free will scientifically.
DeletePeople experience choice every day. It is as real as the experience of reasoning about the results of an experiment. We start from the world of our experience and then build outward from that.
Determinists postulate that people have the experience of choice but it is an illusion. But that is just a hypothesis. Is there anything in our experience like that, which is an illusion 100% of the time? People can experience optical illusions, or hallucinations, or think a dream is real. But that is notable because it is being compared with ordinary sight. For that matter, ordinary sight is needed to interpret the results of scientific experiments. How did the scientists know that their instruments showed a particular result, maybe they were hallucinating every time? Nobody takes objections like that seriously, but determinists want us to take a similar objection seriously.
I think part of the issue is that free will does not fit into the models of nature (chemistry or physics) that scientists have constructed. But the thing is, those models are just attempts to understand particular phenomena, there is no guarantee that they encapsulate all there is to know about some phenomenon. Why should we assume all that exists can be modeled by contemporary science.
So, if no one believes the rest of our experience of reality such as reasoning and sense experience, is an elaborate trick of the brain, there is no reason to believe that choice is one as well.
What Specifically in our experience would be different if we did not have free will?
DeleteThere is a discussion about this topic in this open thread
Delete(https://edwardfeser.blogspot.com/2024/12/the-thread-youve-been-waiting-for.html), starting from an anonymous comment on January 3,2025.
I am putting that there as a reference, but in this comment I will say something similar to what I said there.
What would be different in our experience is that we would be passive observers, unable to act.
Determinists postulate that whether free will exists or not, everything would be the same. But that is a hypothesis, not an obvious truth.
In fact, people do report experience times of diminished agency such as when drugged, drunk, or in dreams. They also report times of greater clarity of thought and greater agency.
Also, as I pointed out in the earlier example, neither reasoning nor any of the 5 senses is believed to be an illusion 100% of the time. But the experience of them is as real as the experience of choice. If the criterion for believing in free will is to make a model of the universe that incorporates choice and everything else, then it will be a while; no one knows how to do that.
But that is my point, it is not necessary. The starting point for science is the world of everyday experience. Scientists live in that world too, despite how they may sometimes speak. Free will is not something thrown in as an afterthought, it is part of that world as well and if it can't be modeled, so much the worse for the model. Why should we assume contemporary science can encompass everything?
@NLR: you wrote, "In fact, people do report experience times of diminished agency such as when drugged, drunk, or in dreams."
DeleteDon't those examples bring in bodily states? But do you hold that there is an intellect in the human that is not a property of the body but rather, something separable from body? Because if you do, then how are cases of drugging, drunkenness or dreaming relevant?
I would think that intellect is a property of a living animal body that has certain other properties. No functioning animal body, no functioning intellect.
@fincino4ml
DeleteMy main point was that based on empirical considerations, it is reasonable to believe in free will. And also that the common statement of determinists about everything being the same whether free will exists or not is a hypothesis, not an obvious truth. Also, that scientific models and reality are distinct things. Just because no one can make a model of the universe that incorporates choice and everything else does not mean it is not real.
As far as my personal view, I believe that the mind and body are connected somehow, but also, the mind is not just the operations of the brain. I do not claim to know how it all fits together. If someone wants to say that free will needs a mind completely unaffected by the body to exist, so be it, but but don't think that.
I would say that the considerations I gave in the two comments above and the comment linked in the open thread express why it is not needed to have a fully worked out theory of how the mind and body interact to believe in free will.
It is possible to know that it works without knowing how it works.
So you’re saying one’s ability to interact with the world, such as kicking a rock for example, proves free will?
Delete"So you’re saying one’s ability to interact with the world, such as kicking a rock for example, proves free will?"
DeleteThe reasons I gave are different than that. I tried to express them as well as I could in the earlier comments; I have said all I wish to say at present. But maybe you could think of an argument based on a consideration like that.
The belief in free will is the common sense belief. I recognize there are variations, that people have discussed fate and there have been a variety of views, but leaving all that to one side, the point is that the common sense belief is that people do have some capability to make real choices.
So, however people want to make the case, the point is just that it is reasonable to believe in it. Here is another, more philosphical article about the topic (https://williamfvallicella.substack.com/p/could-free-will-be-an-illusion)
There are many ways to describe truth. If one person wants to look at minerals chemically, another using x-ray crystallography, it's the same mineral, however you want to understand minerals is up to you. The same way, I am sure there is more than one way to describe the fact that it's reasonable to believe in free will.
Ultimately, people have to just think about it and make the case in a way that makes sense to them.
Why assume Inertia is internal to a moving object?
ReplyDeleteAnonymous June 21, 2026 at 5:55 PM
DeleteWhat do you mean by "internal". Inertia is normally defined as a property of massive objects.
Ask Feser that, he's the one that brought it up in this article.
DeleteHey, Ed? This hypothesis (that the Early Moderns just decided to invalidly ignore Scholasticism in order to deliberately facilitate some kind of project) seems very dubious. In fact, I'd even go so far as to say that it verges on being a Conspiracy Theory. Would any historians actually agree with your account? Certainly, if they did you would cite them, so the lack of any such citation is very odd. Instead, you cite one single book from 1950, which doesn't even seem to be clearly in agreement with you. The rest of your argument for what happened and why is based on...what, exactly? You cite no sources for anything in the last six paragraphs, so it seems like you're just making this up out of your own head. I got to admit, that kind of seems like kook behavior.
ReplyDeleteFrom what I've heard, the most commonly accepted explanation for the fall of Aristotelianism/Scholaisticism is that it was a gradual shift from the Medieval position, which was in any case never monolithic but always in constant flux between various positions like being more pro-Aristotle or pro-Plato, or reading Aristotle apart from vs together with Christian/Islamic commentaries on him, the dispute between the Via Antiqua vs Via Moderna (aka the Nominalist Dispute), or (later) between the Scholastics and the Humanists. It seems strange that you do not mention any of this actual history in your account. Do you not know about it? Are you leaving it out? Neither looks good.
And since I pre-empt the peanut gallery jumping on me for my act of outrageous sacrelige, no, I will not be responding to comments, unless Feser leaves one himself. Feel free to scream, guffaw, and snort to your hearts' content.
@EXE
DeleteI will say for context's sake that Feser does address these matters at greater length elsewhere, and the purpose of this blog post was largely to comment on what is at issue in an important phrase "the mechanical world picture."
While got my start looking into history/philosophy of science from Feser and remain indebted to him, I will admit that the vision he usually presents on the blog is somewhat simplistic at times. I haven't looked into the intellectual crisis of late scholasticism in extreme detail, but the late, great Scotist Timothy Noone once told me that there are epistemological problems created by Thomas's solution to the problem of universals that still haven't been adequately addressed. Now, I would probably and Feser definitely disagree, but its worth pointing out that even Thomas's thought had to be clarified and still does. This intellectual crisis reached its crescendo at the same moment that Western Christendom was exploding into upheaval in the Reformation and the Wars of Religion. The radicality is, as Feser has emphasized elsewhere NOT a matter of changing vocabulary which, as you rightly note, changed gradually and overtime. It was rather in what Dr. Michael Hanby (book link below) calls "the ideas and ideals" of science. In the seventeenth century, the very purpose of knowledge itself was redefined, quickly and in dramatic fashion, and with it the metaphysical underpinnings of western thought shifted as well.
I will post a few things I have read on this topic below, but the best evidence for this is what the founders of modern thought themselves claimed to be doing. Descartes and Bacon both saw themselves as implementing an entirely new vision of knowledge itself, and even Galileo knew he was breaking with an antecedent tradition the metaphysical underpinnings of his vision of motion. By the time you get to Kant, you have the proclamation that a Revolution is in the process of occurring.
Some works:
Hans Jonas: the Phenomenon of Life
Simon Schaffer and Steven Shapin: the Leviathan and the Air Pump
Michael Hanby: No God, no Science?
I think a thought experiment can illustrate the essence of the mechanistic picture and what motivated it:
ReplyDeleteImagine that I am thirsty, so I decide to go to my refrigerator to grab a beer.
Now, imagine that science has progressed to such a point that scientists are able to somehow track all of the behavior of all of the molecules in my brain, from the moment before I decide to get a beer until the moment I have actually gotten the beer out of the refrigerator.
Now, suppose that upon analysis, the scientists were to discover that during that process, some of the molecules in my brain acted in a way that could not be predicted in a law-like way by any mathematically deterministic schema, Newtonian or otherwise, and yet they could also show that this particular behavior by those particular molecules was instrumental in the series of events culminating in me actually getting the beer out of the refrigerator.
Now, from an Aristotelean point of view, this is perfectly intelligible. It's easy to explain why those molecules in my brain behaved in that particular way and not in some other way: That behavior was the efficient cause directed towards its end by its final cause, namely my decision or goal of getting a beer.
But let's say that you are a modern who has rejected the reality of final causes or ends out of hand. In that case it will seem unintelligible and inexplicable why those brain molecules behaved as they did and not some other way. It will seem random and arbitrary, lacking any rhyme or reason, appearing to be uncaused and to violate the Principle of Sufficient Reason.
In short, the moderns invented the mechanistic world picture because once you reject formal and final causes, a sort of mathematical predictability is the only way for any causation not to appear totally arbitrary, so they had to try to force everything into that model.
@The Deuce: you speak as though the moderns just wanted to get rid of formal and final causes and then flailed about, trying to patch together explanations that jettison formal and final causes. I thought that after Galileo falsified Aristotle's account of locomotion, moderns came to think that formal and final causes weren't needed in scientific explanation. I.e. moderns didn't first say, "Let's get rid of formal and final causes! OK, now what do we do? Let's try mathematical models." Rather, the reverse.
DeleteBut maybe I have this all wrong.
I get the impression that the early moderns wanted to get rid of formal and final causes specifically in the area of scientific investigation and not necessarily in any other area. After all, many of the early moderns were Christian and so believed that God created things for a reason so everything has a final cause. They just thought that talk of formal and final causes was a distraction from finding out how balls and planets moved.
DeleteBut as you point out, what is obviously missing from this method of analysis is the ability to account for agency. So it was ignored. Like the saying goes "if the only tool you have is a hammer, everything starts looking like a nail" agency began looking like a nail and now we have the "hard" problems of philosophy.
In the area of science, the British Empiricists tended to use mechanical models analogously in order to understand other phenomena. For example, consider Maxwell and his electromagnetic theory.
ReplyDeleteYes and no. Aristotle's view that the velocity of falling objects was proportional to their mass was not any more or less intrinsically "mechanistic" than Galileo's view. There was still a mathematical relationship implicit in Aristotle's view, that had he been correct could have been measured, and measuring it would not have required any direct reference to formal or final causes.
ReplyDeleteBut of course he had never tried to measure it, which is why he never realized he was wrong. Galileo's demonstration that mass doesn't affect falling speed had the effect first of all of causing people to doubt Aristotle in general, even in areas like metaphysics that weren't impacted by the relationship between falling speed and mass.
But second and more importantly, Galileo caused people to realize that things like the relationship between mass and falling speed couldn't be known a priori or by common sense alone, but needed to be empirically investigated and measured to be known, that such empirical investigation yielded practical information, and that these practical mathematical relations did not require direct appeals to formal and final causes to ascertain.
From the usefulness of such information, moderns began to make the unwarranted inference that ALL useful information reduced to empirically ascertainable mathematical relationships that could be ascertained without appeals to formal and final causes, and from there the even more unwarranted inference that all useful information could be ascertained without appeals to formal and final causes because formal and final causes weren't real.
Once they reached that conclusion, the mechanical world picture was complete, as they were forced to take the position that all cause and effect relationships (not just practical empirically measurable ones) reduced to mathematically deterministic relationships without remainder, because as mentioned previously, with formal and final causes out of the picture, mathematical determinism is the only means left for cause and effect behavior to not seem like entirely arbitrary and unintelligible violations of the PSR. The denial of final and formal causes is what made "mechanical" cause-and-effect relationships go from something useful we could look for to an all-encompassing metaphysical principle that had to apply to everything, even human thought.
The irony is that the moderns ended up making causation seem arbitrary and making mincemeat of the PSR anyway because formal and final causes are implicit in the very *idea* of cause and effect. You can't get the concept of cause and effect from mathematical equations alone. There's nothing about a mathematical equation relating two values that can identify one value as representing a cause and the other as representing an effect. You have to have an understanding of what causation is to begin with in order to start looking for mathematical relationships between causes and effects, to know what you're looking for, and to have any idea of what an equation that models a cause and effect relationship is even supposed to be a model of. Claiming that causation reduces to mechanistic mathematical relationships without formal or final causes is a similar error to claiming that conscious experience is an illusion, or trying to prove logically that the laws of logic are not universal - meaning, it's an example of trying to deny the reality of something by appealing to something that logically depends on the very thing being denied.
That's why the mechanistic world picture was followed shortly after by theories from guys like Hume and Kant taking causation to be a subjective human construct and concluding that we were never rationally justified in identifying causes and effects in objective reality, a position that is a far more incoherent violation of the PSR and that renders cause-and-effect far more arbitrary than what the moderns were trying to avoid in attempting to reduce all causation to mechanism.
(cont) And of course it becomes most incoherent when applied to non-mechanistic cause-and-effect relationships like those involved in human thought, consciousness, and agency, where mechanistic reductionism entails the non-existence of rationality, consciousness, the self, objective truth, etc.
ReplyDeleteJust wanted to note that the "mechanical world picture" has evolved a lot since Boyle's time. Natural selection and cybernetics have demonstrated that mechanism and nature are perfectly capable of supporting systems with purposes, cognition, and agency. At least, it is more plausible now than it used to be.
ReplyDelete@Anonymous who mentioned Boyle: do you hold that emergent properties are a "real thing"? Do you have an argument against the claim that something cannot become F unless it is caused to be F by an agent that is already F or already has an F-causing virtue?
DeleteOf course emergent properties are a "real thing", why wouldn't they be? "F-causing virtue" OTOH sounds like something unreal. Things are real, virtues and essences, not so much.
Delete@Anonymous re Boyle's time: my understanding is that Thomism does not make room for emergent properties. The Theory of Act Potency rules them out. So you'll need to argue for what you stated on June 27, if you want to go further with the claim on this board.
DeleteHi Prof
ReplyDeleteDrawing on some lovely insights from the previous thread above that I got from Tony and Causal Thomist.
I wanted to know, do you think the existence of a regularity, entails the existence at the very least of multiple instantiations of accidental forms since a regularity entails the same event occurs repeatedly.
Do you think regularities are fundamental to the practice of science without which science would be impossible ?
Does this below statement of yours conflict with the notion that regularities are crucial to science
"None of this is consistent with the idea that science is concerned with
cataloguing observed regularities. But it is consistent, in Cartwright’s
view, with the Aristotelian picture of science as in the business of
uncovering the hidden nature of things."
And in general in your view in what ways is the existence of multiple instantistions of the same form , crucial to the practice of science.
I think most of the questions are simple enough for you to answer in one go :).
I think you could ignore all the questions above and consider only this last one of
And in general in your view in what ways is the existence of multiple instantistions of the same form , crucial to the practice of science.
It would be really helpful to me
Cheers
Norm
Would be nice if you could answer it Prof, this kinda like my last quest in the investigation of philosophy of nature, this question on how crucial is multiple instantiations of the same object crucial to the practice of science, I think overall somewhere the answer lies in regularities. And I know you have a million other things to tend to, but I still value your opinion greatly. That's kinda the only reason why I persist .
DeleteSo yeah, it would help a lot.
Norm
Hey Prof
DeleteI guess you must be on a July 4th sabbatcal, because usually you would have been quite receptive to this note and question.
So just wanted to wish you and your family a Happy July 4th
.
Cheers!
Norm
Since it doesn't look I am going to get a response from you , I just wanted to request if you would consider my questions in a future Blog post Prof :) as a sincere admirer of yours. Especially the question on regularities and multiple instantiations.
DeleteI think they are quite pertinent to the philosophy of science and I also think you have in some ways answered them.
With that I will sign off
Cheers
Norm
Sorry, Norm, I've just been snowed under with work for the past few months. I'll try to take a look.
DeleteThat would mean the world to me Prof :)
DeleteThe mechanical picture of evolution is something that I wanted to investigate. Is speciation a natural mechanical process devoid of formal and final causes? Is Darwin’s gradualism the correct view, or is AT essentialism correct? I believe the answers are more evident than some people think they are. These are not purely philosophical navel-gazing questions without any empirical evidence. I wrote a paper for anyone interested.
ReplyDeletehttps://yourlatexsalesman.substack.com/p/dissolving-the-species-problem
I find it useful to separate physics and metaphysics. So what physicists do is to find mathematical models for physical phenomena. And do this quite successfully. Since machines can be fully described by mathematical means it is common to call "mechanical" anything that can be fully described by mathematics. Now metaphysical naturalists imagine that since physical phenomena are of a mechanical nature, the reality that produces them must also be of a mechanical nature, which, of course, does not follow. And is indeed quite problematic, failing to explain adequately about everything that is significant in the human condition.
ReplyDelete