Causality
In Aquinas’s
First Way, he famously argues that it is impossible for there to be an infinite
series of movers or changers, so that a regress of changers must terminate in a
first unchanging changer. As I’ve
discussed in many places (such as at pp. 69-73 of my book Aquinas), Aquinas is not claiming
here that no causal series of any
kind can regress infinitely. Rather, he
has in mind a specific sort of causal series, which commentators sometimes call
“essentially ordered series” and sometimes “hierarchical series.”
He
illustrates the idea with a stone which is moved by a stick which is in turn
moved by a hand. The stick moves the
stone, but not by its own power. By
itself the stick would simply lay on the ground inertly. It can move the stone only because the hand
imparts to it the power to move it. The
hand too, of course, would be unable to move the stick (so that the stick in
turn would be unable to move the stone) unless the person whose hand it is deliberately
uses the hand to move it.
The
technical way of putting the point is that the stick is a secondary cause in that it has causal efficacy only insofar as it
derives or borrows it from something else.
By contrast, the person who uses the stick is a primary cause insofar as his causal efficacy is built-in rather
than being derivative or borrowed. The
stick is a moved mover insofar as it moves other things only because it is
itself being moved in the process. The
person is an unmoved mover insofar as he can move the stick (and, through it,
the stone) without something else having to move him in the process.
Aquinas
gives other arguments against an infinite regress in such cases, but this is
the one I want to focus on here. The
basic idea is that there cannot be secondary causes without a primary cause,
because you cannot have borrowed or derivative causal power without something
to borrow it from. This would be true no
matter how long the regress is, and it is important to note that infinity as
such is not really what is doing the work here.
Even if we allowed for the sake of argument that the stone in our example
was pushed by an infinitely long stick, there would still need to be something
outside the stick to impart causal power to it.
For a stick is just not the sort of thing that could, all by itself,
move anything else, no matter how long it is.
Nor, for
that matter, would it help if the causal series in this case went around in a
circle rather than regressing to infinity – the stone moved by the stick which
was moved by another stick which was moved by the stone, say. For sticks and stones just aren’t the sorts
of things that could move anything by themselves, even around in a circle. There would have to be something outside this
circle of movers that introduced motion into it.
Meaning
Now consider
a second and at first glance very different sort of argument, which is
associated with John of St. Thomas (John Poinsot) and was defended in the
twentieth century by Francis Parker and Henry Veatch in their book Logic
as a Human Instrument. It
appeals to a distinction between instrumental
signs and formal signs. An instrumental sign is a sign that is also
something other than a sign. Consider,
for example, a string of words written in pen on a piece of paper. It is a sign of the concept or proposition
being expressed, but it is also something else, namely a collection of ink
splotches. Now, there is nothing intrinsic to it qua collection of ink
splotches that makes it a sign. By
itself, a string of splotches that looks like “The cat is on the mat” is no
more meaningful than a string of marks such as “FhjQns jkek$9
(quyea&b.”
Suppose we
say that the string of splotches that looks like “The cat is on the mat” has
the meaning it has because of its relations to other strings of splotches, such
as the ones we see in a dictionary when we look up the words “cat,” “mat,” etc. That can hardly give us a complete
explanation of how the first set of ink splotches get their meaning, because
these new sets of splotches are, considered just by themselves, as meaningless as the first set. They too have no intrinsic meaning, but have
to derive it from something else.
Notice that
we have a kind of regress here. And what
the argument says is that this regress must terminate in signs that do not get
their meaning from their relations to other signs, but have it
intrinsically. This is what formal signs
are. And unlike instrumental signs, they
must be signs that are not also
something else – that is to say, they must be signs that are nothing but signs. With a sign that is also something other than
a sign (a set of ink splotches, or sounds, or pictures, or whatever), the
meaning and this additional feature can come apart, which opens the door to the
question of how the meaning and the additional feature get together. But a sign that is nothing more than a sign just is its meaning. Because it just is its meaning, it needn’t
derive or borrow its meaning from something else.
The argument
goes on to say that these formal signs are to be identified with our concepts
and thoughts, which are the source of the meanings that words and sentences
have. This in turn provides the basis
for an argument for the mind’s immateriality, as I discuss in Immortal Souls. The point I want to emphasize for the moment,
though, is that we have here an argument that holds that a regress of items
having a certain feature in only a derivative way can exist only if there is
something having that feature in a built-in or non-derivative way – which is,
at a very general level, analogous to the reasoning Aquinas deploys in the
First Way.
(As a side
note, I’ll point out that John Haldane, in Atheism and
Theism, develops a line of reasoning which might be seen as an
amalgam of these two arguments. A
person’s potential for concept formation, he says, presupposes fellow members
of a linguistic community who actualize this potential by virtue of already possessing
concepts themselves. But their potential
to form these concepts requires the preexistence of yet other members of the
linguistic community. This regress can
end only in a first member of the series, whose possession of concepts need not
depend on actualization by previous members.
This “Prime Thinker” he identifies with God.)
Knowledge
A third line
of argument, once again very different at first glance but ultimately similar
in structure, concerns epistemic justification.
Consider the “problem of the criterion,” of which Michel de Montaigne
gave a famous statement. In order
rationally to justify some knowledge claim, we will need to appeal to some
criterion. But that criterion will in
turn have to be justified by reference to some further criterion, and that
further criterion by reference to yet some other criterion, and so on ad infinitum. It seems, then, that no judgment can ever be
justified.
As the
Neo-Scholastic philosopher Peter Coffey points out in his Epistemology or The Theory of Knowledge,
the fallacy in this sort of argument lies in assuming that the justification
for a judgment must in every case lie in something extrinsic to the judgment itself. The skeptical argument fails if there are
judgments whose criterion of justification is intrinsic to them.
Now, suppose
it can be established that we cannot fail to have at least some genuine knowledge. One
might argue, for example, that even the skeptic himself cannot coherently raise
skeptical doubts without making certain presuppositions (such as the
reliability of the rules of inference he deploys in arguing for
skepticism). Then we would have a basis
for an argument like the following: We do at least have some knowledge; we
could have no knowledge unless there were at least some judgments whose
criterion of justification is intrinsic to them; therefore, there must be at
least some judgments whose criterion of justification is intrinsic to them.
The point is
not to expound or defend this sort of argument here. The point is rather that such an argument would
be a further instance of the general pattern we’ve seen in the other
arguments. In particular, it would be
another case in which it is argued that there can be a regress of things having
some feature in only a derivative way (in this case, epistemic justification)
only if there is something having it in an intrinsic way.
Action
One last
example, which concerns action.
Aristotle, and Scholastic writers like Aquinas following him, hold that every
action is carried out for a certain good, and that good is often pursued only
for the sake of some further good to which it is a means, which is itself
pursued for the sake of yet some other good.
The regress this generates can terminate only in some end that is
pursued for its own sake, as good in itself.
Naturally, there is a lot more than that to the analysis of action and
the good, but the point is to emphasize that once more we see an instance of an
argument fitting the same general pattern we’ve seen in other cases. A regress of items having a certain feature
only derivatively (in this case, goodness or desirability as an end) can
terminate only in something that has that feature intrinsically.
Here are
some features common to such arguments.
First, and to repeat, the basic general pattern is to argue that the
existence of items having a certain feature in a borrowed or derivative way
presupposes something having that feature in an intrinsic way. In one case the feature in question is causal
power, in another it is meaning, in another it is epistemic justification, and
in yet another it is goodness or desirability.
But despite this significant difference in subject matter, the basic
structure of the inference is the same.
Second,
although the arguments are set up by way of a description of a regress of some
kind, the length of the regress is not actually what is doing the key work in
the arguments. In particular, the
arguments, on close inspection, are not primarily concerned to rule out
infinities. Rather, they are concerned
to make the point that what is derivative ultimately presupposes what is
intrinsic or non-derivative. This would
remain the case even if some sort of infinite sequence was allowed for the sake
of argument. For example, even an
infinite series of causes having only derivative causal power would presuppose
something outside the series which had intrinsic causal power; even an infinite
sequence of instrumental signs would presuppose something outside the sequence
that was a formal rather than merely instrumental sign; and so on.
Third, the
arguments all essentially purport to identify something that must be true of
metaphysical necessity. They are not
merely probabilistic in character, or arguments to the best explanation. The claim is that there could not even in principle be secondary causes without
primary causes, instrumental signs without formal signs, and so forth. The arguments intend to identity the
necessary preconditions of there being such a thing as causality, meaning,
knowledge, or action.
Hence, whether one accepts such an argument or not, the claims of empirical science are not going to settle the matter, because the arguments are conducted at a level deeper than empirical science. The very practice of empirical science presupposes causality, meaning, knowledge, and action. The arguments in question, since they are about the necessary preconditions of those things, are also about the necessary preconditions of science. They are paradigmatically philosophical in nature.
Great article. I'm going to refer to this, and refer others to this, for years.
ReplyDeleteDr. Feser:
ReplyDeleteYour summary of the argument from regress in instrumental signs is exceptionally cogent and well-expressed. I’m working on a monograph that touches on the essential incapacity of large language models to understand language, as in fact they do engage in an unending regress from signs to other signs without ever arriving at their original referents. (This is done by design and is an essential feature of the LLM as such.)
With your permission, I should like to quote the first two paragraphs in the section headed ‘Meaning’.
Very interesting. Let me ask you a question. How can a computer program have an “unending regress” of signs? My knowledge of LLM is limited, but my impression is that it is a form of machine learning were you train your machine on a finite (but large) amount of data and symbols. Then, it uses this training plus statistics to predict nice answers. I cannot see where the “unending regress” can come in, although I do see the absence of “original referents”, by which I believe you mean concepts in themselves inside a mind.
DeleteThe unending regress actually works in a circle. For instance, the symbol ‘kitty’ is related to the symbol ‘cat’, which is related to the symbol ‘feline’, which is related to the symbol ‘kitty’. There is nothing in the system except mutual references between words, and no point at which the concept of meaning enters the computations. It’s all about finding the frequency with which different words are used together, along with an admittedly impressive sentence parser to figure out what function a given word is performing in a given sentence, so the LLM can come up with plausible substitutions.
DeleteThe result is that the LLM imitates the form of language but absolutely fails to touch the essence. This is why ChatGPT ‘hallucinates’ when you ask it to write about information not explicitly contained in its training data. It will do things like write legal briefs with citations of imaginary cases. It ‘knows’ what a legal brief looks like, and that it is supposed to contain citations, but it doesn’t know what a citation is for or how it works. So it makes up something superficially plausible but actually meaningless. This is because the concept of ‘meaning’ is entirely outside its frame of reference.
By an extraordinary coincidence "FhjQns jkek$9 (quyea&b" just happens to be my Facebook password. Who would have guessed?! P.S. I've changed it now of course.
ReplyDeleteHighly plausible, given that the probability of that event occurring is 1 in 73^22...
DeleteDeep subject. To me, such regress implies nothingness, for just about any aspect of whatever somethingness one would want to speak of. Now then:can we know this, or must we assume our assumption must be true, logically? It is a bit of a conundrum, isn't it? Contrariwise, any assumption is only just that, if there is no measure of proof. Thorny.
ReplyDelete"A person’s potential for concept formation, he says, presupposes fellow members of a linguistic community who actualize this potential by virtue of already possessing concepts themselves. But their potential to form these concepts requires the preexistence of yet other members of the linguistic community. This regress can end only in a first member of the series, whose possession of concepts need not depend on actualization by previous members."
ReplyDeleteDoes this view presuppose that in forming concepts we go from somewhat imperfectly formed proto-concepts as children to some sort of ideal perfectly sharp concepts possessed by adults? But it seems one could also postulate a solution like C.S. Peirce's "limit concept of truth" (discussed at https://philarchive.org/rec/LEGCPL ) where all our concepts remain somewhat imperfectly formed and fuzzy, and what keeps them from being eternally vague nonsense is the possibility of *future* clarification by a linguistic community, with the ideal of perfectly non-vague meaningful concepts only being approachable in the infinite limit.
"The very practice of empirical science presupposes causality, meaning, knowledge, and action."
As Russell argued in "On the Notion of Cause" (online at https://www.hist-analytic.com/Russellcause.pdf and summarized at https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/causation-physics/#NeoRussChal ), science does require some notion of lawlike mathematical relation between states of the world at different times, but traditional philosophical notions of "causality" go beyond that in various ways that have been largely discarded by modern science; for example the "arrow of time" is not thought to be a fundamental property of causality but due to the Big Bang being a low-entropy state, which leads to a statistical rather than fundamental explanation for why we never see certain processes happening in reverse (eg pieces of a broken egg spontaneously reassembling into an intact one).
I see that in traditional metaphysics the arrow of time is just causation being measured by a mind. Now, we are claiming that the human mind experiences this arrow of time as a consequence of the decrease of entropy over time. Great, now what is entropy? What is a rigorous definition of entropy? One approach is to say that it is the amount of ways you could reorganize the underlying matter and still “observe” the exact same phenomena. For instance, there are many ways that a red gas could be spread out around a room, and be observed as being spread out. There are relatively very few ways in which all the red gas could confine itself to a small spot inside the room. Notice, however, that it is hard to define entropy without bringing the notion that the observation would be the same, or at least very similar, over different arrangements of matter. So, perhaps entropy is a mind dependent concept after all. In fact, try defining “orderliness” and “disorderliness” in a mind independent way. If it is mind dependent, then how can the mind’s perception of time be dependent upon it?
DeleteIf instead you define entropy in terms of “useful energy”, which may be a more optimistic approach for achieving a mind independent concept, then entropy is a causal concept from the start, since “useful energy” is equivalent to energy that actually causes processes to happen, from stars to life.
That would be true for some concepts, but there are many who are extremely clear, like triangularity. Consider we can perform mathematical proofs with unimaginably large numbers like TREE(3) which, to the imagination are absolutely indiscernible from infinity, yet we can clearly know that they are finite and make clear propositions about them (that they are computable, etc.). Meanwhile other unimaginably large numbers like Busy Beaver(10^100) are non-computable. We can distinguish between these types of things as well as infinity. So while certain concepts are vague, like baldness, others are clear and distinct. Clear concepts might be vague to a someone who has an improper understanding of them, but that is just because the person lacks understanding, as do children. But that person lacks understanding for some concepts does not mean he lacks true understanding for all concepts.
Delete"Consider we can perform mathematical proofs with unimaginably large numbers like TREE(3) which, to the imagination are absolutely indiscernible from infinity, yet we can clearly know that they are finite and make clear propositions about them (that they are computable, etc.)"
DeleteI would say that's a consequence of our ability to think about math in axiomatic terms which allows us to make statements about formally defined numbers we can't "visualize" or otherwise grasp in certain intuitive ways. I don't deny that we can be highly confident that statements about given conclusions following from arithmetical axioms and rules of inference will hold up, which in a Peircean view implies they'd be preserved under all future elaborations of our thinking by future members of our intellectual/linguistic community; I just don't think we need to believe in a transition from the uncertainty about such things that might be felt by a child first learning about them to some kind of absolute perfect confidence. It's more like a level of confidence so high that we would never doubt it in practice, but we could still always entertain Descartes-style skeptical doubts about our reasoning always going slightly wrong every time we tried to think about a given problem.
Russell's argument makes the common mistake of someone who thinks like a philosopher of science (especially in the early and mid-twentieth century) rather than a scientist; that is, of assuming that 'science' consists of nothing but theories composed of mathematical and logical relations. As people have pointed out since, actual scientists doing actual science *interpret* mathematical theories in causal terms all the time, and there is no known viable account of scientific experimentation at all that does not depend crucially on notions of causation -- e.g., causal concepts seem needed even in order to describe whether or how an experiment provides evidence for or against a theory.
DeleteBrandon, can you elaborate what you mean by "interpreting mathematical theories in causal terms" and causal concepts being needed to evaluate experiments? It seems to me the purely mathematical definition of physical theories is sufficient for connecting to experiment: if you have two competing mathematical theories, you can model an initial experimental setup in both theories and use that to make predictions about the physical state at later times, given the set of initial conditions and the dynamical laws expressed as mathematical equations. In any example where the two theories make different predictions, you can try to recreate that initial experimental setup in reality and then see which predictions better match empirical reality. None of the additional notions that Russell associates with "cause", like the notion of an arrow of time being fundamental as opposed to just a consequence of a statistical tendency for entropy to increase, seem necessary for making such predictions. (BTW, if you include this idea of the arrow of time not being fundamental as an example of Russell thinking too much like a philosopher, I'd point out that this idea originated with physicists rather than philosophers, and that they have continued to strongly advocate for it, for example on p. 208 of Popper's The World of Parmenides he mentions that he had tried to define the arrow of time in a non-entropic way, and Schrodinger was dismissive: 'Schrodinger resisted any attempt to find an indicator, other than entropy, of the direction of time: this would be an attempt to destroy the most beautiful theory of physics, he said to me accusingly'.)
DeleteAlso note that one's theoretical model of the experimental setup need not consist of a precise description of the initial state of every particle making up the apparatus and the system being measured, in statistical mechanics it's understood one can talk about "macrostates" that are coarse-grained descriptions compatible with many different possible microstates, see discussion at https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/statphys-statmech/#FramBSM . From such macrostate descriptions one can derive statements about relations of conditional probability between different macrostates, and theorists like Judea Pearl have shown that many of our "causal" intuitions can be captured in terms of analysis of these probabilistic relations as discussed at https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/causation-probabilistic/#CausMode , but this is a notion of causality which is not fundamental but which "supervenes" (in sense discussed at https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/supervenience/ ) on the underlying micro-dynamics given by the mathematical laws of physics.
Very nice presentation, it brings together a metaphysical point that usually is left implicit in these arguments (or even left obscured).
ReplyDeleteI have a (small) complain about the first example, the moved movers. You say
The hand too, of course, would be unable to move the stick (so that the stick in turn would be unable to move the stone) unless the person whose hand it is deliberately uses the hand to move it...The person is an unmoved mover insofar as he can move the stick (and, through it, the stone) without something else having to move him in the process.
It is troubling and possibly misleading to refer to the person as an "unmoved mover" here. Just on Aristotelian terms, we could posit that the person is moving the stick in order to hit fruit off the tree, and he is being moved by the desire for the fruit. The fact that the chain of causality here switches to a different kind of causality than efficient cause is certainly significant, but ultimately that doesn't seem to matter to whether the causal chain there switches to primary causality. The person is a moved mover, since he is moved by another.
In modern materialism, the claim would be that this desire itself reduces to efficient causality, because the sight of the apple induces neuron firings in the brain which induce salivation in the mouth and hunger hormonal changes in the stomach, etc. That too is not a problem for the general thesis here, though: there is still a need for a source of motion, a cause that is different in kind from the moved movers of the universe, and neither big bang theory nor quantum mechanics accounts for the source of motion by themselves. Even if you posit macro motions coming into being on account of superstrings and their vibrations, and that superstrings vibrate by their own natures, that doesn't account for their existence and relations to each other.
@Tony, agreed. It's odd to refer to the person as an unmoved mover because he isn't unmoved. I prefer to call such agents proximate first causes or proximate first movers.
DeleteCan someone suggest some readings that explore such series in the case of ends and that show that there must be an ultimate end which must be God?
ReplyDeleteI would prefer some works that are conversant with modern philosophy if possible, thanks!
@Anonymous, Ed referred you to such as book. He wrote an excellent intermediate work called Aquinas.
DeleteInteresting post. I’ve actually been thinking about infinite regresses recently, specifically of the sort which involve parts and properties held by parts, which could be called “mereological regresses.” Let me give an example:
ReplyDeleteLet’s say we have a stop sign. The stop sign is red, but it’s not wholly or entirely red. The word ‘STOP’ is in white font. However, the sign can be variously divided by mentally cutting out sections of it, and these are its ‘parts.’ Now, when we predicate any attribute of a thing, it must be either incomplete (partial) or complete (whole). So when we predicate ‘redness’ of some object, it’s either wholly red or only partially red. And a stop sign is partially red, obviously. But to be partially red is to have some further part we predicate redness of, alongside another part we don’t. And the red part must either itself be partially red or wholly red.
It doesn’t seem like this series of composition can go on forever. If there’s no part of the stop sign that’s wholly red, then it seems there can be no part of the stop sign that is partially red, either. And that’s clearly contrary to experience. Would this fall under the form of infinite regress arguments which you are concerned with in this post and which are used in scholasticism/Thomism?
The short answer is that you’ve committed an error of ambiguity. ‘A stop sign is red’ is not a statement of the same kind as ‘The red part of a stop sign is red’. The former is a loose statement that requires qualification (‘except for the word STOP, which is white’); the latter is a tautology. If you treat them both as statements of the same kind and degree of truth, of course you will get into mare’s nests.
DeleteAs I’ve said, there is a distinction to be made between predicating some attribute partially or predicating it wholly of something. The proposition “the stop sign is red” is still true, it’s just that it’s red in virtue of it having a red part.
DeleteIf there’s no part of the stop sign that’s wholly red, then it seems there can be no part of the stop sign that is partially red, either.
DeleteI guess I don't see the problem with accepting that "the red paint on the surface of a certain X part of the sign is wholly red". What's wrong with that? Even so...
it’s either wholly red or only partially red. And a stop sign is partially red, obviously. But to be partially red is to have some further part we predicate redness of, alongside another part we don’t.
Some attributes are extensive, such as redness, and some are intensive, such as heat, or hunger. Just because the whole sign is 70 degrees (i.e. average kinetic energy) doesn't mean there is a part of the sign that is 70 degrees: perhaps half is hotter, and half is cooler. And of hunger: no (extended) part of me is "wholly hungry", but I am, as a whole being, partially hungry. I don't know that all attributes can be characterized the way you are aiming for.
I hope I never meet the Captain at an opposing stop sign. I don't know what the Captain would do. Moreover, perhaps, I don't know if the Captain, he;she; or it, would know what he; she; or it would do. I guess that was the Captain's point? Maybe...
ReplyDeleteWatch your driving, folks...
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ReplyDeleteThe arg. against an infinite causal regress seems question-begging. For it already includes the notion of a ‘primary cause’ within that of ‘per se series’. But this isn’t necessary i.e., the latter can be defined without the former, in which case independent evidence is needed to show why a per se series must have a primary cause. And until then, an infinite regress in such a series hasn’t been ruled out.
ReplyDeleteRe the example the mind moving the hand moving the stick moving the stone - yes, the stone would be immobile were it not for the mind moving it, and the same is true for the stick-stone (and so on for each cause-effect relation within such a series) – but still, it’s not clear from that why such a series cannot extend infinitely.
If it’s said something like: ‘nothing in the per series will have causal power by virtue of what it is’ – we’ll respond: true, but in the following sense: for every member in that series, that member moves only in virtue of the immediately preceding member (e.g., were it not for the stick’s motion, the stone wouldn’t move, and were it not for the hand’s motion, the stick wouldn’t move, etc, etc.). Hence, if nothing in the series has causal power by virtue of what it is (in this sense), then it’s true that nothing in the series will i.e., nothing in that series will have causal power in this sense, such that it can move but not in virtue of the preceding member. But from this, it’s still not shown why such a series can’t be infinite.
The picture for this post is comedy gold lol
ReplyDeleteAs well as I am able to understand, S., well-thought and stated! My compliments! I don't think too much about *infinite-ness*. Infinity is nothingness (to me). "it" is neither objective, nor, destination. One can't get there from here: there is no "there", there.
ReplyDelete