Natural theology is knowledge of the existence and nature of God that can be attained through the use of our natural rational powers, specifically through philosophical arguments. Like many other themes in philosophy, it goes back to the very beginnings of the enterprise, in the work of the Pre-Socratics. In another post I suggested that Anaximander, specifically, could arguably be seen as its founder. The usual and certainly defensible view, though, is that that honor goes to Xenophanes. In God and Greek Philosophy, Lloyd Gerson writes:
In Xenophanes we can discover the first clear instance of the Ionian speculative approach applied to natural theology. That for which there is little evidence in Anaximander is more explicitly stated in Xenophanes… Accordingly, it seems appropriate to call Xenophanes the first natural theologian. By this I mean that he is the first to attack the theology of the poets and to offer as a substitute a form of theology based upon argument. (p. 17)
What are
probably the most famous passages from Xenophanes illustrate the attack in
question. He writes:
But mortals suppose that the gods are born (as they themselves
are), and that they wear man’s clothing and have human voice and body.
Ethiopians make their gods black and snub-nosed, Thracians
red-haired and with blue eyes.
But if cattle or lions had hands, so as to paint with their
hands and produce works of art as men do, they would paint their gods and give
them bodies in form like their own –horses like horses, cattle like cattle.
Homer and Hesiod attributed to the gods all things which are
disreputable and worthy of blame when done by men; and they told of them many
lawless deeds, stealing, adultery, and deception of each other.
The target
here, of course, is a crudely anthropomorphic conception of deity. When ascribing bodily attributes and moral
failings to the gods, Xenophanes says, human beings are merely projecting their
own features onto them. Had he left it
at that, Xenophanes’ position would seem to be a precursor of Ludwig
Feuerbach’s nineteenth-century critique of theism as a mere projection of human
attributes onto reality. But he did not
leave it at that. Xenophanes’ beef with
this anthropomorphism is not that it is too theistic but that it is not
theistic enough. What he wants to
replace it with is not atheism but a purified, philosophical theism. He says:
God is one, supreme among gods and men, and not like mortals
in body or in mind.
But without effort he sets in motion all things by mind and
thought.
Let’s note
the several implications of these remarks.
We have, first, a kind of monotheism insofar as Xenophanes speaks of God
as one and supreme. It is true that he
immediately goes on to refer to other “gods” over whom God is supreme. But as Gerson notes, if the affirmation of
multiple personal beings who are higher than human beings by itself made
Xenophanes a “polytheist,” it would also make all those who believe in angels
polytheists.
That
Xenophanes attributes mind and thought to God entails that his conception of
God is not impersonal. That he takes God
to act through thought alone and to be unlike mortals in body indicates that he
conceives of God as immaterial (though one could argue that he may mean only
that even if God is in some sense corporeal, it is not the way in which we are
corporeal). That he takes God to act on
all things, and without effort, indicates that he takes God to be omnipotent.
So far we
have a set of attributes that would be recognized by all present-day
theists. But Xenophanes says more:
The whole [of god] sees, the whole perceives, the whole
hears.
It always abides in the same place, not moved at all, nor is
it fitting that it should move from one place to another.
The first of
these remarks implies that there are no distinct parts in God associated with
his seeing, perceiving, and hearing.
Rather, what he does he does as a whole.
This indicates a commitment to something like divine simplicity. The second remark, which denies motion to
God, indicates a commitment to divine immutability. The attributes of simplicity and immutability
are central to classical
theism, but rejected by contemporary neo-theists or theistic
personalists. Naturally, that Xenophanes
takes God to move all things without himself being moved also makes his
theology a precursor of Aristotle’s notion of God as the prime unmoved mover.
What is the
basis for Xenophanes’ conclusions? It is
not clear from the fragments we have.
Gerson takes him to be engaged in essentially the same sort of project
Anaximander pursued, namely reasoning to the existence of a first principle and
then deducing what that first principle must be like if it going to provide a
satisfactory explanation of the cosmos.
Anaximander had argued that this first principle must be apeiron – “unbounded” or “unlimited,”
radically unlike the things of our experience and without beginning or
end. On Gerson’s interpretation,
Xenophanes is engaged in a similar sort of reasoning, arguing from the world to
God as its first principle and deducing the divine attributes as corollaries of
his being this first principle of all.
For example, if God is to be the ultimate explanation of all motion, he
must not himself be in motion.
By contrast,
Werner Jaeger, in his book The Theology
of the Early Greek Philosophers, argues that Xenophanes is not engaged in
this sort of reasoning. Rather, his
approach is to deduce the divine attributes by way of a reverent consideration of
what it is “seemly” or “appropriate” to ascribe to deity (pp. 49-50). The idea would be, for example, that it would
be unseemly or inappropriate for God to be like us in body, or to engage in
deception, or to be in motion. Hence we
must deny these things of him.
Interestingly,
these competing interpretations of Xenophanes roughly correspond to two main
approaches to deriving the divine attributes in contemporary natural theology,
known as first-cause theology and perfect being theology. First-cause theology begins by reasoning from
the world to God as cause of the world, and then deduces the divine attributes
from considerations about what something would have to be like in order to be
such a first cause. This is the approach
we see in St. Thomas Aquinas, for example.
Perfect being theology begins with the idea that whatever else God is,
he is supremely perfect, the greatest conceivable being. It then proceeds to deduce the divine attributes
from a consideration of what something would have to be like in order to be
supremely perfect. This is the approach
we see in St. Anselm. On Gerson’s
interpretation of Xenophanes, he is essentially applying the method of
first-cause theology, whereas on Jaeger’s interpretation, he is essentially
applying the method of perfect being theology.
There is one
further aspect of Xenophanes’ position that should be noted. In his book Philosophy of Nature, Paul Feyerabend argues that in the process of
transforming the notion of God, Xenophanes also transformed the notion of
nature. For the traditional views
Xenophanes was criticizing not only effectively made the gods out to be part of
the natural world. They also thereby
gave the natural world a quasi-divine status, insofar as the heavens were thought
to be occupied by deities and “both for Thales and for the farmers of Boeotia
all things were in motion and filled with gods” (p. 143). As Feyerabend notes, “archaic thought does
not sharply distinguish between cosmological concepts and theological ones”
(Ibid.). But Xenophanes’ thought implies
such a distinction, taking, as it does, the fact that natural phenomena have
various limitations to make them per se
incompatible with divinity, rightly understood.
Feyerabend is critical of this development, but we needn’t and shouldn’t follow him in that judgment. On the contrary, in transforming the concept of nature in the course of refining the concept of divinity, Xenophanes anticipated Christian classical theism’s crucial distinction between the natural and supernatural orders.

Cool post. That’s all.
ReplyDeletehttps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Paul_Feyerabend
ReplyDeleteA counter-point from Dr. Edward Butler, not in response to this specific article, but to this particular view: https://endymions-bower.dreamwidth.org/55744.html
ReplyDeleteHey Prof and Hi Everyone
ReplyDeleteThis is a great post. I am inclined to cause as an approach because of its inherent intuity. And also its indispensability from our experience as well as scientific endeavours. An important part of the Causal approach is to establish its reality
I was recently reading about Causation in Aristotle's Revenge, it's a book that I find myself turning to again and again, I commented on another post in that regard, so I'll just post it again,
By chance do any of ya'll happen to know of any old or contemporary physicist who would agree with this point often made by Prof, logically it's airtight. I was just researching it
"They also fail to realize that the only way we can make sense of the idea that observation and experiment give us a rational justification for believing physical theory is if we suppose that our perceptual faculties are causally related to external reality (which is something else that Bertrand Russell emphasized)."
You don't have to provide the exact quote. Just the name, I'll take it from there. You could also take a swipe at it Prof ,if you get time.
Sorry for being a bit persistent Prof but with what you handle on twitter everyday, me trying to get the odd response is manageable I would think.
Besides it Keeps the blog lively, I think my research often takes me to hidden gems on the blog even in the comments, last night I found your reference to Henry Stapp in the comment section on AT philosophy.
Anyways if a scientist who has also made russells point about Causation happens to pop in to your head do drop his name.
Cheers
Anyone else could answer this question as well although Prof's answer would be preferable.
DeleteA few names come to mind, from different generations and angles :
Deletea) John Bell is perhaps the most striking. His critiques of Copenhagen positivism essentially make Russell's point from the inside: you cannot coherently speak of "measurement" or "observation" without presupposing a real causal interaction between apparatus and physical system. This is precisely why Bell insisted on replacing "observables" with "beables"; the orthodox vocabulary secretly smuggles in a causal realism it officially denies. A physicist sawing the branch he sits on, as it were.
b) David Bohm is another strong case. His whole project (Bohmian mechanics, but also his later work on implicate order) was built on the conviction that positivism was philosophically self-defeating for exactly this reason: if there are no real causal structures underlying phenomena, the very notion of empirical contact with reality collapses.
c) Max Planck is often forgotten in this context, but he was a fierce critic of Mach's positivism and argued explicitly that science presupposes a causally structured reality independent of the observer, otherwise the rationality of the scientific enterprise becomes unintelligible.
d) Erwin Schrödinger (in Mind and Matter and What is Lief?;), makes closely related points: the scientist's mind must be genuinely causally connected to a real world for science to be anything more than a coherent dream.
e) On the philosophy of science side, Mario Bunge argued at length that causal realism is not a hypothesis within science but a methodological precondition of it, which maps directly onto what Prof. Feser is saying. And Alan Musgrave's defense of scientific realism via the "no miracles" argument converges on the same point: the only non-miraculous explanation of why observation and experiment give us rational grounds for belief is that our perceptual faculties are genuinely causally hooked onto external reality.
Also, one slightly unexpected name: Percy Bridgman, the father of operationalism and thus ostensibly a positivist. His later writings show him increasingly uneasy, recognizing that the very act of measurement presupposes a real causal interaction; which quietly undermined his own earlier positivism from within. Worth a look if only for the irony.
Hope that helps point you in some useful directions!
Thank You so much Timacho.
DeleteHi Prof
DeleteSo while writing Aristotle's revenge were you aware of scientists who may have espoused the causal principle of were you only away of Russell
Thank you for this Ed. I agree about Anaximander—I think his famous quotes about the nature of the Apeiron has some of the intuition behind both cosmological and ontological arguments in it (it is Arche but we also know from its nature that it cannot not be).
ReplyDeleteIf I must fault the otherwise very good Gerson volume it should really be titled “The Cosmological Argument and Greek Philosophy,” this emphasis leading to some philosophers, especially Parmenides, getting a slightly dismissive treatment.
Ironically those Xenophanes quotes might capture something about Perfect Being theology which was neglected by Anglo-American philosophers of religion (possibly because of the faith and reason paradigm they were working in), namely that is is a kind of a meditative assent of the mind towards God in which predication of attributes is not so much a logical exercise as a devotional act. With this in mind it contains both negative and positive theological impulses with one side predominating depending on the thinker (Pseudo-Dionysus’ for instance emphasising the former as does Plato in the famous passages about the Agathon). So in Xenophanes’ case to think of God in a way that is “seemly” or “fitting” is not just a question of logical correctness but a morally virtuous act.
ReplyDelete"They also thereby gave the natural world a quasi-divine status, insofar as the heavens were thought to be occupied by deities and “both for Thales and for the farmers of Boeotia all things were in motion and filled with gods” (p. 143). As Feyerabend notes, “archaic thought does not sharply distinguish between cosmological concepts and theological ones” (Ibid.)."
ReplyDeleteHenk Versnel, esp. in his Coping with the Gods, and his followers like Tim Whitmarsh have written a lot on this theme. Because Greek speakers would use names of gods to refer to natural phenomena, e.g. “Demeter” for “grain,” often we cannot tell whether a name of a particular god functions only as metonymy or as a reference to the god or both. Thinkers like Anaximander and Xenophanes were "going beyond" and seeking to introduce, shall we say, clarity in the place of ancient ambiguities.
Interesting. I had never really heard of this account before, at least not in such detail. However, I don't think you're really being fair to Feyerabend, his criticisms of Xenophanes seem at least plausible. What exactly is Xenophanes' reason for rejecting anthropomorphic gods, other than that the idea offends him? He accuses Xenophanes of simply begging the question and presuming that defenders of the Homeric worldview would accept that his Single God cosmology is possible. And I do note that it is almost never argued for *why* this high, exalted, disembodied vision of deity is better than anthropomorphism. Even Ed's post here kind of subtly presumes that this is so, by using loaded language (anthropomorphism is "crude", transcendentalism is a "purer" kind of theism). Why? By what principles is this conception of God better, and why should we agree with those principles? One could just as easily turn around and argue the opposite, that a transcendent God is actually more morally problematic because it is utterly divorced from human experience and affairs, rendering it into a kind of Lovecraftian abomination beyond our comprehension, to whom our notions of morality are meaningless. Furthermore, Xenophanes' God is still portrayed as engaging in thought, hearing, and so on, so it is still portrayed as engaging in human activity despite supposedly being utterly transcendent. Maybe this is just metaphor, but if so, metaphor for what? It has to be at least comparably *like* human thought and hearing, otherwise it is meaningless and even misleading to use these words to describe what it does.
ReplyDelete"And I do note that it is almost never argued for *why* this high, exalted, disembodied vision of deity is better than anthropomorphism."
DeleteThe author of this very blog has written *extensively* about this. And he is just following on the Thomistic tradition.
Amazing, truly amazing.
I mean, sure, but I'd like to actually hear what those are, rather than continually hear that it's been done "elsewhere". The Thomists may indeed have arguments for this, but aren't these based on their pre-existing commitments to God as First Cause? I think my point is still quite fair - usually, it is simply taken for granted that anthropomorphism is a crude, disgusting viewpoint only suitable for barbarous fools, whereas transcendentalism is pure, intellectual, and sophisticated.
Deletebut I'd like to actually hear what those are, rather than continually hear that it's been done "elsewhere".
DeleteIf it takes a book length treatment to do it justice, then asking for it in a blog post is not a reasonable ask. If they give you the truncated, abbreviated treatment that obviously has gaps because it's truncated, you will just poke holes in the gaps and say "it's got holes". So, go to the book-length books that Feser has published where he addresses it in the depth justified by the question.
"I think my point is still quite fair"
DeleteNo it is not fair, it is fact extremely unfair given what Prof. Feser has written on the subject either throughout many posts on this blog or in book form. Or just given the classical theist tradition, going back to Plato and Aristotle. It is just your ignorance coupled with chutzpah maskerading as an argument.
@ EXE: you wrote "The Thomists may indeed have arguments for this, but aren't these based on their pre-existing commitments to God as First Cause? "
DeleteAFAIK Thomists do not stake out a pre-existing commitment to God as First Cause. They derive that conclusion. But their premises, I think, rely on a pre-existing commitment to the theory of Act / Potency. As crusty old Arthur Holmes said, Thomism is theory-dependent.
If you're interested, you can delve into Aristotle on things' having being "in act/actuality" and having being "in potency/ potentially." In my cup is water, having being as water in act. The contents of my cup are potentially air. But they don't just poof out as air. Something needs to act on them. Trace back thinking like this and either you get a regress of actors into infinity or you get a cycle or you get an actor not acted upon, at which point the series stops (or begins, depending on POV of explanation).
All the above refers a series of actors in the present, not to a series of actors going back in time.
It seems to me that the Act / Potency framework is not proved from yet anterior premises known to be true, but rather, is argued for from the claim that without the Act/Potency theory, we can't give ultimate explanations and we're left with a world that is irrational: we can't explain change AND continuity of identity.
Furthermore, Xenophanes' God is still portrayed as engaging in thought, hearing, and so on, so it is still portrayed as engaging in human activity despite supposedly being utterly transcendent. Maybe this is just metaphor, but if so, metaphor for what? It has to be at least comparably *like* human thought and hearing, otherwise it is meaningless and even misleading to use these words to describe what it does.
DeleteFeser has addressed this, relying on Aquinas: the use of analogy (which includes metaphor) applies to our statements of God's positive attributes. With worldly analogies, we can know directly both ends (analogues) of the analogy, and so we can think of the likeness in terms where it is possible to state with some clarity how X is like to Y, where it is like and where it is unlike. We can state the likeness in terms that are not entirely circular. With describing God, we know one analogue of the analogy, ourselves. What we can't do is state clearly, positively and non-circularly how God is like us in that attribute and yet how he is different. So we do it negatively: God has all the virtue and excellence of thought, but he does not have our limitations of thought. Being beyond us, we can't describe that specifically and positively, we would have to understand him thoroughly to do that, and that's just what we don't have - we aren't beyond ourselves. So, for God, we use analogy recognizing that one term of the analogy is known only imperfectly.
ficino4ml,
DeleteThat seems like a pretty good description.
@EXE adding: you might say that Aristotle was trying to produce a framework for explaining continuity and change, sc. how a thing can remain the same thing when one or more properties of it change. If x is F at time T1 but is not-F at T2, do we have two different x's? After all, not all that is true of the x at T1 is true of the x at T2, so the two x's seem not to be identical.
DeleteWhat to do? Heraclitus: deny that the two x's are identical. Everything is in flux. Parmenides: deny change is real, say it is only a function of appearance.
Aristotle tries to get past this by introducing the notion of active vs potential being. The x is F in act at T1 but is not-F potentially at T1. At T2, x is not-F in act. Depending on the nature of the change, x could be potentially F at T2.
@ Anonymous re analogical predication of names of God: it has always seemed to me that one can't construct a deductive argument, the conclusion of which is known to be true with certitude, if one doesn't know that the terms are univocal throughout. Your last sentence, "one term of the analogy is known only imperfectly," is consistent with what I just wrote. So it seems it's contentious to claim that conclusions of arguments that rely on analogical predication are known to be true with certitude. Yet Thomists tend to claim that the truth of some conclusions in natural philosophy is known with certitude - and so Vatican I.
Deleteficino4ml,
DeleteIt appears to me that Anonymous was not claiming that analogical predications are known to be true with certitude and so there is no disagreement between the 2 of you. It can true that there are some conclusions that can be known with certitude while this particular one is not.
I would be interested in seeing EXE make his case for polytheism against monotheism now that you've explained some of the AT background.
I love these kinds of posts. It always delights me to see the geniality (and the always interesting thoughts) of our classical philosophers (a lot of the pre-Socratics are an interesting piece of history in metaphysics and so on).
ReplyDeleteThese posts also bring a reflection within them and, sadly, reminds us of something very important: how we have become distant from this fruitful and lovely philosophical endeavour and its ends. We are missing the mark that our predecessors saw as the true terminus of knowledge. How have we come so far as no other generation has and yet lost the 'brightness in the eyes' for a philosophy that matters, delivers us from ignorance, and brings meaning to life?
We will not last (and definitely cannot push much further than we think) if we continue to turn a blind eye to the contemplative and investigative ways that moved our prime philosophers on their adventure through reality and the reality of God. No matter how 'advanced' we are, mundane goods will not satisfy the soul's thrist for knowledge. Only the knowledge of these realities can bring us true eudaimonia.