Sunday, January 12, 2014

Does existence exist?


Existence exists.

Ayn Rand

Existence does not exist.

Cardinal Cajetan

Both Rand’s statement and Cajetan’s sound very odd at first blush.  What does it mean to say that existence exists?  Isn’t that like saying that stoneness is a stone or humanness is a human being, neither of which is true?  On the other hand, what does it mean to say that existence does not exist?  Isn’t that like saying that there is nothing that exists, which is also manifestly false?  Yet how could both of these statements be false?

Suppose we interpreted them as the contraries “All existing things exist” and “No existing things exist.”  In that case, they could both be false if we supposed that there are at least some existing things that exist and some that do not exist.  But “Some existing things do not exist” is self-contradictory, and indeed “No existing things exist” seems no less so.  Moreover, “All existing things exist” itself seems as obviously true as a statement could be.  But it is also trivially true, a mere tautology.  And in any event, surely Cajetan did not mean to be uttering an obvious falsehood, nor Rand a trivial truth.  So, at second blush the statements might continue to seem very odd. 

Let’s try third blush.  Suppose we read “exists” in Fregean terms, as captured by the existential quantifier.  Then both statements come out as ill-formed formulae, complete gibberish.  Rand’s statement comes out as something like “There is an x such that there is an x such that…” and Cajetan’s as something like “It is not the case that there is an x such that there is an x such that…”  This would be to read Rand and Cajetan the way Anthony Kenny reads Aquinas in his book Aquinas on Being, and it is about as fair a reading of them as Kenny’s is of Aquinas -- which, as Gyula Klima pointed out, is not fair at all. 

Fourth blush is the charm.  In fact what each writer meant is perfectly intelligible when their statements are understood in context.  Rand’s remark is from her book Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology.  As Wallace Matson remarks in his essay “Rand on Concepts” in Douglas Den Uyl and Douglas Rasmussen’s anthology The Philosophic Thought of Ayn Rand, “I take her to mean by this that there are things independent of our thinking about them” (p. 23).  Rand takes this to be “axiomatic” in the sense that while it cannot be directly proved neither can it coherently be denied.  Why not?  Den Uyl and Rasmussen explore the theme in their own essay in the volume, “Ayn Rand’s Realism,” in which they note that for Rand since consciousness is always of or directed at an object, it is self-evident that something exists -- namely (as Rand states in the Foreword to the book) the object of one’s consciousness and oneself as the subject of consciousness.

Naturally one can raise questions about this.  Granted that the object of one’s consciousness exists qua object -- i.e. “intentionally” -- it doesn’t follow that it exists in mind-independent reality.  (A hallucinated tree certainly “exists,” but only qua hallucination, not qua material object.)  Granted that there is consciousness, a Lichtenberg or a Hume would still question -- not plausibly, but they would question -- whether there is an abiding self to serve as the subject of consciousness.  But even in this case Rand would arguably still have something that cannot coherently be denied, namely the existence at least of consciousness qua intentional.  More to the present point, “Existence exists,” understood merely as a claim to the effect that the existence of something or other cannot coherently be denied, is certainly intelligible.  But what does that tell us about mind-independent reality?

That brings us to Cajetan’s statement.  Jacques Maritain cites it at p. 20 of his A Preface to Metaphysics, when commenting on Cajetan’s commentary on Aquinas’s On Being and Essence.  Aquinas famously argues in that work that there is a real distinction between the essence of a thing (what it is) and its existence (that it is).  When you perceive a tree what you perceive is being as confined, as it were, within that particular essence, the essence of that tree.  The intellect goes on to abstract the universal pattern treeness, and also to consider being as such.  But just as treeness in the abstract is different from the essence of this particular individual tree, so too is being as such, considered in the abstract or merely conceptually, different from the existence (or “act of existing”) of this particular individual tree.

Now as I read Maritain reading Cajetan, what the thesis that “Existence does not exist” comes to is simply the point that existence considered in the abstract by the intellect or conceptually is not the same thing as the actual existence of a concrete, mind-independent object.  And that is surely correct.  The point of making the point, for Maritain anyway, is (again, as I read him) to emphasize the distinction between Thomism and the Leibnizian sort of rationalism that holds that the order of mind-independent reality can be read off from the order of concepts.  This is, for the Thomist, one reason (not the only one) for insisting on the real distinction between essence and existence.  To deny the real distinction tends either to collapse essence into existence or collapse existence into essence.  Leibnizian rationalism tends in the latter direction -- collapsing existence into essence, where essences in turn collapse into concepts, which are essentially mind-dependent -- and this in turn tends in just the sort of idealist direction that was, historically, the sequel to rationalism as it gave way to Kantianism, Hegelianism, and the like. 

And as it happens, Rand, according to Den Uyl and Rasmussen (on p. 5 of the essay cited above), would, given her thesis that “Existence exists,” deny the Thomistic doctrine of the real distinction.  The idea is that to know the essence or “what-ness” of a thing is to know that it exists, and no further explanation of its existence is needed.  Hence (so the line of thought seems to go) if I know, just from consciousness of such-and-such, what such-and-such is, then ipso facto I know the existence of such-and-such.  Hence if I cannot coherently deny consciousness of such-and-such, then I cannot coherently deny that “Existence exists.”  Or, again, so the argument seems to go. 

(Note that this would also help explain Rand’s atheism: If the existence of a contingent thing is not really distinct from its essence, so that existence needn’t be added to the essence of a thing in order for the thing to be actual, then the sort of argument Aquinas gives in On Being and Essence for the existence of God -- understood as ipsum esse subsistens or subsistent being itself -- as the source of the very existence of things, is blocked.)

If this is Rand’s view then she is definitely in conflict with Cajetan and other Thomists, just as the statements from them quoted at the beginning suggests (though for reasons much more complicated than the two statements considered in isolation would suggest).  For she seems at least implicitly committed to the view that the order of mind-independent reality can be read off from the order of concepts.  How can they differ so radically given that Rand on the one hand and Cajetan and other Thomists on the other are all Aristotelians?  Den Uyl and Rasmussen give us a clue when they tell us (p. 5) that Rand’s Aristotelianism is much like that of William of Ockham, who also denied the real distinction.  And Ockham, of course, is for Thomists the man who perhaps more than any other set in motion the disintegration of the Aristotelian-Scholastic tradition.

The irony is that Rand apparently adopted a position that in fact tends toward idealism in the course of trying to defend a realist metaphysics opposed to idealism.  But then, as Pius X could have told her, we “cannot set St. Thomas aside, especially in metaphysical questions, without grave detriment.”

205 comments:

  1. But what does it mean to say that “they are all rational”? What does “rational” mean here?

    It means the same thing that it always has for those analyzing form with the Porphyrian tree. It is a particular substance capable of knowing forms via the union of the form to the possible intellect. There are many substances that instantiate rationality, but, obviously, they do so in ways that are alike but not identical.

    what they have in common is what Gregory of Nyssa would agree is their resemblance “in all points”, which you agree is “an early version of the identity of indiscernibles”, and not the similarity of indiscernibles.

    I can't tell exactly what Gregory is implying in the passage you quoted. The thought of the Church Fathers is in general far too unsystematic to make leaps of that kind. All I can say is that he seems to be saying that, between God and creatures, similarity in all respects entails absolute sameness.

    In any case, getting into a discussion about Gregory's theory of forms would be a worthless detour. I've appealed to him in the past on issues of divine analogy; not on the relationships between forms. His own theory on this matter is very strange and somewhat Hegelian, so it's irrelevant to our debate about Aquinas's theory of forms.

    Or are you arguing that it is impossible for the intellect to abstract all differences which would leave commonality that is the same in each thing?

    My argument is fairly simple. The intellect possesses a form that is different from the forms in the things that it knows; but these forms are related by a certain absolute likeness that we call "formal sameness". This is weaker than identity but stronger than analogy. The reason that the intellect can know other forms is that it is united to them via this likeness. One cannot comprehend form "in itself"--separated from all particularity--, because form "in itself" does not exist and is instantiated nowhere. A thought about form in itself would be a thought about nothing. Instead, the intellect comprehends forms as they are instantiated in reality, which is to say particularly. But, because the form within the intellect is formally the same as the forms in various particular substances, it becomes possible for the intellect to understand that two substances are both lions, for example.

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  2. @Douglas - I've decided to be charitable towards your bullshit. First, existence is not an object and not a property. If existence were an object, then only that object would exist because that object would be existence and thus the only thing able to exist. You obviously didn't pay any attn to the post because the idea of existence as something leads us to an infinite regress. But more importantly, if existence were a property, you are making the absurd claim that essence precedes existence. But an essence's existence precedes its existence or doesn't exist prior to the property that it exists.

    The best way to understand the place of existence is to understand that when we grasp x, we first encounter x in the senses, then x is grasped by the intellect, then we judge x to exist. There is some debate in this area, however, even among Thomists. Some would actually place the judgement of existence after contact with the senses but before the apprehension by the intellect. The reasoning here is that we become aware of SOMETHING (i.e., "what is THAT?") before we apprehend it. Perhaps we actually judge existence twice: we sense z, we judge that something exists (not yet x because we haven't apprehended it yet, only "sensed" it), we apprehend x and then judge that x exists. If existence were an accident, we would know it before apprehension like any accident, but we actually don't because we would in the most favorable case judge that something exists and not come to know "exists" as an accident.

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  3. I mentioned this article in my post Philosophy: Existence is God.

    The critique on Ann Rand's statement "Existence exists" depends on a certain definition of "Existence" & subsequently "exists".

    I utilized the definition of Existence as "Everything that 'is', or more simply, everything". That means Existence covers everything, including physical Existence & conceptual Existence. So Existence exists because Existence is the set of everything (the Universal set). According to wikipedia, the "Universal set is a set which contains all objects, including itself".

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  4. Prof.feser recently the objectivist Dawson Bethrick responded to your post http://edwardfeser.blogspot.com/2014/01/does-existence-exist.html regarding ayn rand http://bahnsenburner.blogspot.com/2018/05/edward-feser-on-ayn-rand.html it seems to me that his criticisms are very confused let me quote the following to indicate that thats the case ''Feser continues:
    This is, for the Thomist, one reason (not the only one) for insisting on the real distinction between essence and existence.
    Then Rand has at least one very good reason for denying the Thomist distinction between essence and existence!

    Feser goes on:
    To deny the real distinction tends either to collapse essence into existence or collapse existence into essence.
    No, it doesn’t, and Feser’s mere assertion that it does, does not constitute a proof that it does. Again, existence is metaphysical, essence is epistemological – having to do with completing the formation of concepts by identifying the essential characteristic(s) distinguishing one class of units from all other classes through the process of definition. Again, we need an objective theory of concepts to understand these complex relations, but where does Catholicism give us any theory of concepts, let alone an objective theory of concepts? Blank out.'' , ''The supposition that such a metaphysical dichotomy exists arises, so far as I can tell, as a result of failing to distinguish between what exists from how we know. Given the primacy of existence, the processes by which man conceptualizes what he finds in the world cannot overwrite the nature of what he finds in the world.

    Given the primacy of existence, one of Rand’s hallmark achievements, theism has lost the battle once and for all. Given the fact that existence holds metaphysical primacy over conscious activity, there’s no room for a metaphysics of ‘wishing makes it so’. Theism has no objective basis to enter any philosophical contest against the primacy of existence. I think Rand considered this obvious if not self-evident, given her grasp of what the primacy of existence means for philosophy in particular and human cognition in general. But it will likely take other thinkers a brutal degree of self-honesty to reach the level of understanding that was basic to Rand’s worldview, a degree which most thinkers will ditch at the first sign of threat to their allegiance to mystical views.'' im wondering what is your opinion on all this and will you make a blog responce ?

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  5. To exist is no more and no less than to be a member of the class of everything that is self-identical. The notion that 'existence' entails more than self-identicalness may lead to deficient ontologies (e.g., those in which there are no objects of mathematics, no objects of which mathematical truths are true), while the notion that 'existence' entails less than self-identicalness may lead to inflated ontologies (e.g., those in which there are supernatural objects, objects which are not self-identical and of which no assertion is a truth or a falsehood).

    "Existence exists" is, at best, an unfortunate (ambiguous) expression of the conviction that something exists that is self-identical and that only that which is self-identical exists. One may eschew the expression and share the conviction.

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