Friday, June 29, 2012

Reply to Steve Fuller

As I noted in a recent post, the Spring 2012 issue of Theoretical and Applied Ethics contains a symposium on Ethics, Atheism, and Religion, with a lead essay by atheist philosopher Colin McGinn.  I wrote one of the responses to McGinn’s piece, and one of the other contributors, Steve Fuller, wrote an essay with the title “Defending Theism as if Science Mattered: Against Both McGinn and Feser.”  What follows is a reply to Fuller.  (Readers who have not already done so are advised to read McGinn's essay, mine, and Fuller’s before proceeding.  They're all fairly brief.)

Fuller contra McGinn

My piece was very critical of McGinn, and as the title of his contribution indicates, Fuller is critical of McGinn as well.  But our criticisms are significantly different, and in fact I would take issue with some of what Fuller has to say against McGinn.  In particular, Fuller seems to think that McGinn’s “belief… in the ultimate efficacy and significance of scientific inquiry” is one that “presuppose[s] the existence of God, specifically, the monotheistic deity of the Abrahamic tradition,” whether McGinn realizes this or not.  Fuller also indicates that he thinks that “from a strictly Darwinian standpoint” the value we place in science “is very puzzling.”  In the absence of “a belief… that we are created ‘in the image and likeness of God,” Fuller says, “it is not at all clear why we should continue to hold science in such high esteem.”

He is not much more explicit than that and I would not want to put words in his mouth, but it would seem that what Fuller is claiming is that a high degree of confidence in science is justifiable only if we suppose that both the order of the universe and the reliability of our cognitive faculties are guaranteed by a divine intelligent designer.  (I interpret him as taking this position both on the basis of what he says in this essay and because Fuller has been associated with the “Intelligent Design” movement.)

If this is Fuller’s argument, then in my view it is much too quick.  I agree that neither the order of the universe nor the reliability of our cognitive faculties are intelligible given the conception of the material world associated with naturalism.  But from the falsity of this conception, the truth of theism does not automatically follow.  For suppose that (as I have argued in several places) the Aristotelian teleological and essentialist conception of the material world is correct.  Then the immediate explanation both of the order that exists in the natural world and of the reliability of our cognitive processes is to be found in the natures of material substances themselves -- in particular, in their substantial forms and in the teleology or directedness toward an end that is immanent to them given their substantial forms.  

Does this inherently teleological and essentialist natural order itself require an explanation in terms of a divine cause?  I certainly think so (and have argued for that conclusion too in several places).  But that claim requires further argumentation.  For the Aristotelian-Thomistic (A-T) tradition -- in contrast to the “design argument” associated with Paley -- we cannot go directly from the existence of order in the world to a divine intelligence; an intermediate step is required.  And the reason is that A-T is opposed to the whole picture of the universe as a kind of artifact and God as a cosmic artificer, at least insofar as this picture implies that there are no inherent essences or teleology in nature.  The time-telling function of a watch is not in any way inherent to the parts of a watch but derives entirely from its maker; hence if you know that something is a watch, it follows directly that there must be some intelligence that put that function into it.  But the teleological features of natural substances are inherent to them; that’s what makes them natural (in the A-T sense of the “natural”).  Hence it makes no sense to treat them as comparable to “watches” in need of a “watchmaker.”  That’s just the wrong way to proceed in arguing from the world to God.  (See my many posts on the dispute between A-T and ID theory for more on this subject.  And see The Last Superstition, Aquinas, and my American Catholic Philosophical Quarterly article “Existential Inertia and the Five Ways” for defense of the main A-T arguments for the existence of God.  You can read the latter online by Googling the article’s title, going to about the third search result, and clicking on “Quick View” just below the link.)

Indeed, it is only on the A-T sort of view, rather than the Paley sort of view, that science is intelligible.  For even though God is the ultimate cause of the world and its intelligibility, we do not need directly to appeal to Him or His intentions in order to understand the specific ways in which natural substances and processes work.  For example, even though God is the ultimate source of all causal power, you can know that sulfuric acid will corrode metal without having to make reference to Him, because that is the sort of effect sulfuric acid will have given its nature.  And you can know that roots are for taking in water and nutrients and that eyes are for seeing just by studying roots and eyes themselves, without reference to the intentions of a designer, because that is what they are for given their natures.  Science is possible precisely because natural substances have essences, teleology, and causal power immanent to them, and thus knowable apart from the intentions of their Creator -- precisely because it is really they who act, and not God who does everything, as in the occasionalist picture of divine causality.  The immanent or “built in” character of the essences and teleology of natural substances goes hand in hand with the A-T view (which occasionalism denies) that natural substances are true secondary causes.  And to deny that they are true secondary causes is implicitly to deny that there is a natural order for science to uncover.  (Indeed, as I have argued elsewhere, part of the problem with the view of nature implicit in arguments like Paley’s is that it tends -- even if Paley and his defenders do not intend this -- to collapse into either occasionalism or deism.)

There is a parallel here to the A-T conception of natural law.  Human beings, like every other natural substance, have for A-T a nature or substantial form, and what is good for them is determined by the ends or final causes that follow upon having that sort of nature or substantial form.  But just as we can normally determine the efficient causes of things without making reference to God, so too can we normally determine the final causes of things without making reference to God.  And thus, just as we can do physics, chemistry, and the like without making reference to God, so too can we do ethics without making reference to God, at least to a large extent.  For we can know what is good for a thing if we can know its nature, and we can know its nature by empirical investigation guided by sound (A-T) metaphysics.  At least to a large extent, then, we can know what the natural law says just from the study of human nature and apart from any sort of divine revelation.  That’s why it’s the natural law.  (And just as the conception of nature associated with Paley threatens to collapse into occasionalism -- on which it is only ever God who does anything, with nature contributing nothing -- so too does the view that ethics depends directly on God threaten to collapse into a view of morality as a set of arbitrary divine commands, with human nature contributing nothing.  I have addressed these issues in an earlier post.)

In my view, then, religious apologists make a serious mistake when they try to go directly from the reliability of science or the reality of objective morality to the existence of God.  One reason this is a mistake is that such arguments are unsound.  To show that the conception of nature associated with naturalism is false is, for the reasons I’ve indicated, not by itself to show that theism is true.  Another reason is that this sort of approach tends, in the ways I have also indicated, to lead to a seriously inadequate conception of God’s relationship to the world.  The right approach to natural theology (as I have argued in a recent post and also in the YouTube lecture linked to above) is to begin with premises drawn, not from natural science, but from the philosophy of nature and/or metaphysics.

Fuller contra Feser

If Fuller’s response to McGinn is inadequate, his criticisms of me are, not to put too fine a point on it, bizarre.  His remarks are equal parts hostile, unfounded, and inaccurate right out of the gate, as he begins his attack on my views by writing:

I do not buy into Feser’s self-serving, question-begging construct, “classical theism,” or his corresponding charge that McGinn is “pre-theistic.”  My guess is that in keeping with a certain strand of Catholic sophistry, Feser wants to banish the very idea of atheism as conceptually incoherent, and [sic] that self-avowed “atheists" are simply people who have yet to master the classical theist’s way of making sense of God…. [Feser] want[s] to ring-fence God from serious epistemic contestation…

Where exactly I have “begged the question” Fuller never tells us.  As to the accusations that I resist “serious epistemic contestation,” charge atheism with being conceptually incoherent, and claim that no one who understands classical theism could fail to believe it, what I actually wrote in my reply to McGinn was precisely the opposite.  I said:

A reasonable person might reject such alleged proofs [of classical theism], but to characterize the debate the way McGinn implicitly does is to make a basic category mistake…

and

Now, a critic might intelligibly question whether the arguments for such a divine Cause succeed… But to suggest that belief in the God of classical theism is relevantly comparable to believing in Zeus, werewolves, ghosts, or Santa Claus is to miss the whole point.

and

The point has nothing to do with whether or not classical theism is true, or with whether the arguments for it are ultimately any good.  Even if the atheist were correct, that would not be because it turned out that the God of classical theism really was the sort of thing that could intelligibly be said to require a cause of his own, or was composed of parts, or was merely one instance of a kind among others.

But it seems that Fuller’s animus is actually inspired, not by any purported unfairness on my part toward atheists, but rather by my objections to his own preferred conception of God.  He writes:

[Feser] basically wants to rule out of the discussion those who would argue that divine qualities differ from human ones only by degree and not kind.  Such a person, I include myself, holds that God is an infinite being, but the dimensions along which God is infinite are the same ones in virtue of which humans prove finite.  In that respect, if you scale up all of our virtues indefinitely and imagine them contained within one being, then you have God…

[T]his would not be Plato’s or Aristotle’s way of seeing things… but it would be familiar from defenders of a nominalist approach to universals and an univocal approach to predication, starting with the high mediaevals Duns Scotus and Ockham and leading to Hobbes and Mill in the modern period.  Indeed, it is the theological tradition whose bloody-minded literalness in envisaging God as the cleverest mechanic working with the most tools in the largest possible shop that [sic] animated the imaginations behind the 17th century Scientific Revolution.

Feser demonizes the nominalist tradition as "anthropomorphic" and "personalist" in its conception of God, as if that were a kind of intellectual corruption, if not blasphemy, or [sic] some otherwise settled sacred truth.

End quote.  Now, if Fuller wants to defend theistic personalism, univocal predication, nominalism, etc. he’s welcome to go for it.  I never “ruled out of the discussion” those who would defend such views; I simply disagree with them and have presented arguments against them.  That’s discussion, not a refusal to discuss.  (I address the dispute between classical theism and theistic personalism here, here, here, here, here, and here, and in some of the posts on the dispute between A-T and ID linked to above.  I have discussed the baneful theological and philosophical consequences of nominalism here and here.  These themes are also dealt with in The Last Superstition and Aquinas.)

Does Fuller have anything to offer other than pique?  Not much.  It is evident that one thing he likes about the doctrines in question is that they were, as a matter of historical fact, embraced by the fathers of the scientific revolution.  Is Fuller therefore claiming that they are logically linked to science, so that to accept science one has to embrace theistic personalism, univocal predication, and nominalsm?  Evidently not, for he allows that “Feser, in good Thomist fashion, can logically accommodate a version of scientific inquiry within what he calls ‘classical theism.’”  

So what’s the problem?  Fuller’s answer is as follows:

[O]n Feser’s view, science appears doomed to dwell in a shadow universe vis-à-vis the protected ontological zone reserved for theology.  While this neatly tracks the modern political separation of state and church, it undermines any strong reading of the New Testament doctrine of logos, whereby through language humans partake of the deity’s creative potential.  Without such an interpretation, which is arguably more concerned with the Bible’s literalness than its truth, Christians would not have been emboldened to make the great leap into the modern scientific world-view.

I must confess that I’m not sure what all of this means; or at least, I cannot find within it anything that is both (a) an argument and (b) remotely plausible.  Take the claim that on my view “science appears doomed to dwell in a shadow universe vis-à-vis the protected ontological zone reserved for theology.”  Is Fuller complaining that I think science can be conducted without reference to theology?  If so, then as I indicated above, I think that is indeed essentially the case.  But it obviously is the case, since scientists do it all the time.  They can determine the structure, function, causal powers etc. of tree roots, eyes, sulfuric acid and the like without asking themselves “Hmm, now what exactly did God have in mind when He made a world with roots, eyeballs, sulfuric acid, etc.?”  Empirical science is the study of the natures of material things; it isn’t a kind of roundabout divine psychology, an indirect way of reading God’s mind.  When the biologist discovers something about the structure of tree roots, it really is tree roots that he knows about, and when the chemist discovers something about the structure of sulfuric acid, it is really sulfuric acid that he knows about.  That is why a scientist can find these things out even if he is an atheist.  (Does Fuller deny this?  Presumably not.)

But doesn’t this entail that the world that science reveals to us could exist without God?  Not for a moment.  Determining that sulfuric acid has specifically this kind of effect rather than that requires no reference to God; but that sulfuric acid and anything else have any causal power at all in the first place, even for an instant, is unintelligible without God as Uncaused Cause.  That roots develop in this specific way rather than that can be known without reference to God; but that any change occurs in the world at all is unintelligible without God as Unmoved Mover.  It requires no theological knowledge at all to realize that eyes are “directed at” seeing, specifically, as their natural end; but that anything is directed to any natural end at all, even for an instant, is unintelligible without God as Supreme Intelligence.  

Arguments like the Five Ways establish these conclusions.  But they are not scientific arguments -- not because they are less secure than science but because they are more secure, because they start, not with premises about this or that particular aspect of the natural world (which is what science is concerned with), but rather with premises concerning the very possibility of there being any empirical world at all for science to study in the first place.  That is to say, their premises are drawn from the philosophy of nature and/or metaphysics rather than from natural science (as, again, I explained in a recent post).

What about Fuller’s claim that this “undermines any strong reading of the New Testament doctrine of logos, whereby through language humans partake of the deity’s creative potential”?  Once again I’m not even sure what Fuller means.  Is he claiming that classical theism and/or the A-T view of the relationship between theology and science is incompatible with the Christian doctrine that human beings are made in the image of God?  How, exactly?  After all, the A-T view of human nature, which I endorse, is that our distinctively intellectual powers -- on which language rests -- cannot in principle be given a materialistic explanation, and that it is precisely these immaterial intellectual powers that make it true that we are made in God’s image in a way nothing in the rest of the material world could be.  How exactly is this undermined by the A-T view of science?

The only other thing Fuller has to offer in the way of something like an argument against me is the following defense of nominalism:

While Feser is undoubtedly correct that an idealized triangle differs significantly from actual ones, including those drawn to represent the ideal, the key point is not the difference but the similarity. In effect, the ideal triangle serves as a goal or standard, against which actual triangles may be judged, so as to result in measures of distance and, by implication, progress towards realizing the ideal.  It follows that actual triangles are not imperfect versions of some pre-existent ideal but works in progress towards reaching a vividly imagined ideal. The ideal triangle exists for us more as a hypothesis than an indubitable a priori concept, let alone a metaphysical foundation.

Once again it takes a little effort to discern the argument within the murk, but it seems to be this:

1. The ideal triangle serves as a goal or standard, against which actual triangles may be judged, so as to result in measures of distance and, by implication, progress towards realizing the ideal. 

It follows that

2. Actual triangles are not imperfect versions of some pre-existent ideal but works in progress towards reaching a vividly imagined ideal.

But the argument is no good.  Fuller’s claim, as far as I can make out, is that the idealized triangle by reference to which we judge material triangles to be imperfect exists only in the mind, and not in any mind-independent reality.  But while this might conflict with Platonic realism, it is exactly what is affirmed by Aristotelian realists, who take universals to exist only in either the things that instantiate them or in minds which grasp them, rather than in a Platonic third realm.  Hence Fuller’s argument hardly establishes nominalism; at most it would be incompatible with some version of realism, not all of them.

To be sure, Fuller speaks of “imagining” the ideal rather than (as realists would) of “conceiving” it.  Here I assume he is either being sloppy or doesn’t realize that there is a difference between forming a mental image of something and grasping it with one’s intellect.  On the other hand, perhaps Fuller knows exactly what he is saying and means to deny the distinction realists would draw between imagination and intellect.  But in that case his argument is just a blatant non sequitur, for from the premise that an idealized triangle exists only in the mind it doesn’t follow that the way in which it exists in the mind is as a mental image rather than as an abstract concept.  (I’ve discussed the difference between images and concepts in several places, such as here.  As you’ll also see from that post, if Fuller thinks Aristotelian realism claims that concepts are “a priori” he is sorely mistaken.)

It is also true that Fuller says that the idealized triangle is not “pre-existent,” and at least some Aristotelian realists -- for example, Scholastics like Aquinas -- would say that it pre-exists its instantiations in the world in the divine intellect (which is not the same as a Platonic third realm distinct from any intellect).  But it is hard to see how Fuller could consistently deny this aspect of the Scholastic realist position.  For since Fuller is keen on the idea of God as a kind of Paleyan watchmaker, he would presumably want to say that the idealized forms of things pre-exist in this watchmaker’s mind, as the patterns in light of which he makes things.  

Group hug!

To conclude on a positive note, let me express some agreement with both Fuller and McGinn.  McGinn is perhaps the most prominent advocate of the “mysterian” view that there are certain philosophically problematic phenomena (such as consciousness) which, though they have perfectly natural causes, will probably never be explained scientifically given the limitations on our cognitive powers.  As I have said on other occasions, I think this is the most plausible way for a naturalist to deal with the difficulties facing his position -- and it is a principled way of doing so, given that the naturalist has independent, Darwinian grounds for holding that there are significant limits on our cognitive powers.  

This is one reason I have always found McGinn’s work very interesting (well, apart from what he has to say when he directly addresses religion, which is not very interesting or well-informed).  Fuller also has a kind word for McGinn’s mysterianism:

[T]o be fair to McGinn, he has form in refusing to defer to science as the final epistemic arbiter in matters of mind.  Indeed, he may be the most explicit of the "new mysterian" philosophers who deem consciousness, by virtue of its first-person character, to be beyond the reach of natural science.

So, some agreement between us all!

Except that mysterianism doesn’t work, at least not as a way to avoid theism, for reasons I have explained here with some follow-up remarks here.  (See also my remarks on McGinn’s mysterian approach to consciousness in Philosophy of Mind.)

There, now I had to go and spoil all the ecumenical fun…

226 comments:

  1. (...continued)

    Ultimately the origin of knowledge is in the senses, which for A-T puts us in contact with reality. But as this is the most fundamental type of knowledge, it cannot be something subject to proof or demonstration. It would be a matter for metaphysics to defend the veracity of sense experience (universals and other fundamental principles) from those who would deny it. Without going into the external and internal senses in A-T, the agent intellect then abstracts the universals from our sense perception that then become the terms of our first principles.

    [One question may arise as to how do we know we have these powers? For Aristotle, powers are known by their acts, which are in turn known by their objects. Dr. Feser and other Thomists defend the fact that we know universals from those who hold for nominalism or conceptualism, but won't want to go off on that tangent.]

    The Empiricists took a pass on intellect, which resulted in nominalism and an incapacity for necessary and universal knowledge (what is universal applies to all; what is necessary does not change, i.e., it is not enmattered or is abstacted from matter). So the best one can have is probable knowledge. But as I noted on Hume's account, we ultimately wind up in skepticism. We see this historically in Kant's response to Hume concerning our mind being the form or structuring faculty for phenomena which arise from unknowable noumena.

    Would you say that your (3) here, then, underwrites your assessment of the 'truthiness' of my scientific conclusions/knowledge (or, your own scientific conclusions, too)?

    Yes, it underwrites all knowledge. Your position may ultimately be the same as mine. I think it depends on what you say we actually know in terms of observations or phenomena or sense data. Do we know our ideas or reality? If the latter, then ultimately your models being true would be because they accurately model the processes occuring in nature (vs. correllating ideas in the mind). They would work as well. Though, if we think of the Newton example, mathematical models may work, but not necessarily make claims about physical causes. In reference to a citation above, however, the best we may achieve in a science at a given time is provisional knowledge because of the complexity or difficulty of the subject matter (e.g., astro physics or quantum mechanics). Ultimately, for Aristotle science is about knowing the cause, so I think a "true" model would also employ some sort of causal account (beyond empiriometic or empirioschematic explanations).

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  2. (...continued)

    This paragraph makes sense on its own, but when I try to apply it to my question ("what standard do you apply to the truth claims of scientific epistemology"), it seems like you are point to (3), which seems an appeal to self-evidence. That doesn't sound like what you'd claim though. Is it? ...

    This seems to confirm (3) as I understood it, though, as I interpret the primacy of "common sense" there as being an exercise in self-evidence.

    To put a point on it, then, I understand the "not revisable" ideas of, say, axioms of causality ('a cause produces a similitude') to be invincible due to (3), an appeal to common sense or a sense of self-evidence. Is *that* what would be judging the merits of 'true' for any scientific model that (ostensibly) undermined cause->effect similitudes as a fact of nature?


    Hopefully, what I mean by a "self-evident" principle is clearer now. It isn't faith or assertion or "common sense" as people commonly use the term, but actually a more certain and fundamental type of truth. By "common sense experience," I meant sense experience which is common to all human beings. I didn't state it clearly (and may be becoming less clear now since I need to crash). In other words, for Aristotle, the proper way to knowledge is from general to particular. Sense experience (vs. highly detailed and mathematical theories in, say, particle physics or some other discipline) is common to all. What is more common, general and vague is more certain (kind of counter-intuitive given our highly scientific and technical world) as there is less room for error. Further, sense experience is more fundamental to knowledge from an A-T view. So the veracity of principles derived from sense experience (like the first principles of reason or matter, form, motion, substance, etc. in natural science) are more certain and not open for revision, unlike, say, some theory in astro physics which is open for revision given new information.

    The point is that I think there is room for both types of approach in the A-T view. The method you've outlined isn't problematic, but it wouldn't be a universal method for all science or knowledge. Further, it wouldn't be used due to an empiricist epistemology, but due to the nature of the subject-matter under study in a given science (i.e., something more theoretical due to the complexity or difficulty of the subject or something which concerns specialized equipment, highly contrived lab experiments, or realities far removed or unavailable to ordinary sense experience).

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  3. ...for Aristotle, the proper way to knowledge is from general to particular.

    I wonder if the gears in TS' mind might not now be whirring, seeking to settle on some (seemingly) coherent version, variation or cousin of, "That may be so. But to speak loosely in these terms, there is good reason to believe that the 'general' has long since been left behind (or ought to have been), and we now are (or should be) in the realm of the 'particular'. So that, for example, where once we had the general notion of 'tool', we now have, metaphorically speaking, a particular instance of 'hammer', and so can now rightly conclude from the fact that some object isn't a nail that that object isn't real. In other words, where once we had a general desire for some method or way of determining or knowing what is true, or whether something was true, i.e., whether something might constitute real knowledge, we now have particular instances of performative models, through which, by which and because of which we can rightly conclude from the fact that some piece of knowledge isn't derived from a PM that that piece of knowledge most definitely is not real. You object that the method I've outlined wouldn't be a universal method for all science or knowledge probably for the reason that you don't wish (your so-called 'method') to be obsolete. Understandable perhaps. But that method (if ever it was a method) is indeed obsolete, and not helpful (or no longer helpful, if every at one time it was) for arriving at that knowledge which may be taken to be real."

    - - - - -

    At any rate, that 'impersonating' wondering is in keeping with my sense of the gist of Touchstone's overarching argument, which seems to, in one sense, boil down to this:

    1. By definition, only that knowledge can be real which is 'output' from some performative model.

    2. Since A-T is not the 'output' of some performative model, A-T does not qualify as real knowledge.

    3. Since A-T itself is not a performative model, it is incapable of 'outputting' real knowledge.

    4. Ergo, for two related though separate, stand-alone reasons A-T is (amongst other things (including 'unfalsifiable')) 'vacuous'.

    - - - - -

    But if only that knowledge can be real which is 'output' from some performative model, then either:

    a) a performative model does not itself qualify as being or constituting real knowledge; or,

    b) that performative model itself must be derived from (i.e., must be the 'output' of) some (one or more) prior performative model(s) (in order to be able to qualify as being or constituting real knowledge).

    But if a) should be the case, then to claim that "only that knowledge can be real which is 'output' from some performative model" is to claim that real knowledge is, in the final analysis, necessarily a function of knowledge which is not real.

    And if b) should be the case, then there necessarily must be a regress which either is non-terminating (and thus comes to predate the existence of those creatures who alone construct performative models), or is terminating (and thus terminates with an Unoutputted First Performative Model).

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  4. Sobieski,

    To keep the record straight, and avoid any possible misunderstanding (by yourself or any one else), I haven't any disagreement with anything that you've said, and have no reason or desire to make light of any aspect of it. I simply wondered what might be the general idea of an attempted counter by someone else, as a way of introducing the middle of the three parts above.

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  5. b) that performative model itself must be derived from (i.e., must be the 'output' of) some (one or more) prior performative model(s) (in order to be able to qualify as being or constituting real knowledge).

    ___________________________________

    I think the problem here lies on the methods we use to verify the model and how we go on fixing it.

    When our models predicts, 5 measurements: 1; 2; 3; 4; 5; On a certain unit, and we get during the experiment: 1; 2; 3; 4; 6; we just know that the model is wrong in some point, WHAT POINT is it wrong is have no idea.

    Models CAN be written as syllogisms, so all you have to do is deny one of the premises that build the model by taking something away, adding something to that premise, or modifying something.

    There is no way to output a model after the experiment, unless the initial model is so vague, it can be later modeled into anything I desire, that will fit the new data. The problem is... If the model is vague it makes no prediction, at least no precise predictions about the experiment.

    But anyways there is no way to find the new model after the experiment. Usually we just get the part of the model, within the paradigma that can vary. We make it vary as much as we need until we get the solution in our hands.

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  6. @Glenn

    Thanks for your comments. I think your is assessment is my understanding of Touchstone's position. Though his account for the nature of ideas (in the general sense of sense or intellectual knowledge) is important. Do we know ideas primarily or reality?

    Regardless, it does seems that he holds the performative model theory of knowledge as universal. And if that is the case, I think your critique is exactly on point. These types of universal knowledge claims can themselves be self-refuting. Must everything which qualifies as science or knowledge be falsifiable? Then that theory of knowledge itself must be falsifiable; it must be probable, which seems to me to entail a sort of opinion. Touchstone's justification for his theory, however, is that we just assert these models and insofar as they work, they are verified as "true" with true being defined as working vs. correspondence with reality. How are such models an actual description of reality, though? They may work to varying degrees, but this does not necessarily entail a true knowledge of the processes of nature. Again, we can take Newton as an example. Plus, what are these models applied to? If they are not applied to ideas which place us in contact with reality, then they are just PMs correlating ideas in the mind, which are primarily known. This would be a type of idealism and subjectivism, I think.

    As Fr. Weisheipl explains, sometimes opinion may be the best sort of knowledge we can have in a science. That is not the problem. The problem is universalizing opinion as the best type of knowledge we can have in all circumstances or applying the same method in every science. As Aristotle and St. Thomas say, it is the mark of an educated man not to demand the same method for every science because each science differs based on its subject-matter.

    As for detailed vs. general knowledge. I think the emphasis on the former is again in part due to our friend Descartes. He envisioned knowledge as "clear and distinct ideas," which are secured by his methodical doubt and the application of an quantificational approach to nature. Education today is about specialization, which in turn leads to fragmentation. Since the idea of a common knowledge base in the liberal arts has been lost to a great degree or of knowledge pursued for its own sake, we find that people can't speak to one another. I have trouble as a philosopher speaking to someone highly trained in theoretical physics. We can often talk past one another because backgrounds are so divergent. There is no common foundation any more.

    (continued...)

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  7. (...continued)

    But I do think Aristotle is correct, we learn from general to particular. The general is more vague, but also more certain because their is less room for error. This is due to the relative weakness of the human intellect. The proper object of the human intellect is material being, matter being a principle of potentiality and thus unintelligibility (vs. form). We learn one thing by many concepts, proceeding from a vague grasp to a more comprehensive grasp. One may dispute this account, but it seems to me all knowledge must be founded upon more basic knowledge, much of which may be taken for granted today because the concerns are different (e.g., first principles of reason or the definition of motion). Ultimately, sense experience is the foundation of knowledge and link with reality beyond our mind. To deny this, leads to absurdities like subjectivism, solipsism, skepticism, etc. As an example, I can see this with my kids. They aren't born astro physicists, but attain knowledge from a more general to particular manner. They start with sense experience, just looking around and taking things in, then they start identifying objects with words after repeated experiences ("duck" or "clock"), for example; they start asking "what" questions before they later move to "why." It seems to me this the general approach to knowledge. The same can be said with education. We start with the ABCs and vocabulary before doing differential equations.

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  8. I'm very pleasantly surprised by the civil and enlightening conversation between Touchstone and some of the Thomists. This sort of exchange helps restore some of my faith in the possibility of genuine dialogue in the blogosphere. Keep it up, guys!

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  9. @sobieski et al,

    Just back in town after being out for the 4th. Won't have any time to catch up until this evening but will read and react then.

    -TS

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  10. TS,

    I had a comment a while back about responding to what you wrote about natural knowledge... you may have missed it in the flurry of posts. Or you may have chosen not to respond in the interests of time as you are dealing with several people. That's fine, but if you are still interested in responding, I'm listening...

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  11. @Glenn


    wonder if the gears in TS' mind might not now be whirring, seeking to settle on some (seemingly) coherent version, variation or cousin of, "That may be so. But to speak loosely in these terms, there is good reason to believe that the 'general' has long since been left behind (or ought to have been), and we now are (or should be) in the realm of the 'particular'. So that, for example, where once we had the general notion of 'tool', we now have, metaphorically speaking, a particular instance of 'hammer', and so can now rightly conclude from the fact that some object isn't a nail that that object isn't real. In other words, where once we had a general desire for some method or way of determining or knowing what is true, or whether something was true, i.e., whether something might constitute real knowledge, we now have particular instances of performative models, through which, by which and because of which we can rightly conclude from the fact that some piece of knowledge isn't derived from a PM that that piece of knowledge most definitely is not real.

    "Not real" would not be a coherent statement, under that episemology. It would just be 'non-knowledge', or 'non-qualifying as knowledge', where we are considering knowledge about the extra-mental world. That's an important distinction, because trivial truths and tautological propositions can always be offered. They do not have the extra-mental world as their subject.


    You object that the method I've outlined wouldn't be a universal method for all science or knowledge probably for the reason that you don't wish (your so-called 'method') to be obsolete.

    I don't see how it would be obsolete, even on your terms; models would still perform as they do, right? No, the objection would be that "self-evidence", or "I just know", or, worst among these "It was revealed by God", and propositions that obtain from an epistemology that admits those qualifications are non-accountable, non-falsifiable, incorrigible.

    That's key. Scientific knowledge is provisional, and elminativist: we don't so much know what is 'true', as we have a view of what has not been falsified, or is 'least falsified'. That's where the clash comes: if "it was revealed to me" constitutes warrant for knowledge, the epistemology has "flipped poles", and now is antithetical to the scientific idea of knowledge, of establishing what *could* be knocked down, but which (so far) we've not been able to.
    Understandable perhaps. But that method (if ever it was a method) is indeed obsolete, and not helpful (or no longer helpful, if every at one time it was) for arriving at that knowledge which may be taken to be real."
    So, is this Thomism you are talking about? What is this superceding new model? And how is it eclipsing scientific methodology and epistemology? What is it producing for us that science could not/does not, if you don't mind offering a couple of examples?

    -TS

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  12. @Glenn,
    At any rate, that 'impersonating' wondering is in keeping with my sense of the gist of Touchstone's overarching argument, which seems to, in one sense, boil down to this:

    1. By definition, only that knowledge can be real which is 'output' from some performative model.

    With the caveats about trivial truths and tautological knowledge (definitions, etc.) excepted, of course, yes. Even that may be too casual in terms of "some performative model". Scientific epistemology doesn't embrace "disunified" models. Models for chemistry are integrated into, and formed on top of, fundamental physical models. So, yes, the performance of a model is a key, but models do not exist in isolation, and thus implicate the larger "mesh" of models that ground and inform that model in particular.

    One last comment: the "output" of a model isn't the knowledge, although the predictions and results of applied models are available for our experiential knowledge based. The model itself is the core of the knowledge, the algorithm for producing the results and predictions which we match to our observations and experiences.


    2. Since A-T is not the 'output' of some performative model, A-T does not qualify as real knowledge.

    I think this is why my clarification above is worthwhile. Maybe this is just misunderstanding you use of "output", but to the extent A-T is NOT A MODEL that produces explanations and predictions in an entailed, falsifiable way, then it doesn't qualify as knowledge in the context of scientific epistemology.

    "Real" is a confounding term, here. Epistemically, if it's not potentially false (in principle, even), than saying it's "true" is meaningless. I'm taking your "real" to mean 'true' in some metaphysical sense.

    3. Since A-T itself is not a performative model, it is incapable of 'outputting' real knowledge.

    Yep -- with the provisos above noted (the model *is* the knowledge).


    4. Ergo, for two related though separate, stand-alone reasons A-T is (amongst other things (including 'unfalsifiable')) 'vacuous'.

    Right. It doesn't produce contingent, falsifiable knowledge. If it can't be understood as falsifiable, even in principle, it's impotent as "discovery", and cannot rise to being more than a trivial, analytic truth (or worse -- speculation, conjecture, superstitions flattering themselves).

    Note that this does NOT mean that scientific knowledge is invincible. Quite the opposite. It's *gravitas* obtains from it provisional and accountable nature. Scientific propositions always and only stand at the pleasure of the extra-mental world. We do not decide (once our empricist metaphysics are in place) finally what is consistent with reality; the extra-mental world always has a say.

    -TS

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  13. @Glenn,

    But if only that knowledge can be real which is 'output' from some performative model, then either:

    a) a performative model does not itself qualify as being or constituting real knowledge; or,

    See my previous comments. "Output" is available to use as data, things we can know and observe. But the model itself, the 'algorithm for producing phenomena' is the key knowledge element in this epistemology.


    b) that performative model itself must be derived from (i.e., must be the 'output' of) some (one or more) prior performative model(s) (in order to be able to qualify as being or constituting real knowledge).

    Models vary from being more general and abstract to more practical and specific. The power of a model obtains from being more precise, novel, and detailed. The more detailed models proceed from more general models, and the head of the chain, the research program is the most general, abstract metaphysical axiom: our experiences reflect reality in such a way as to allow for performative models to be built.

    That's a 'meta-model', a model for how models will work in our epistemology. A metaphysical hunch (our physiological hardwiring as empiricists notwithstanding).

    This epistemology integrates feedback up and down the chain. If reality is NOT amenable to model building, we should not see performative models being built. As our models get more and more concrete and precise, to the extent they perform, they make the "hunch" pay off. The 'model' we begin with, which has humans relying on their experiences and applied analytical reasoning generating ever more robust models, becomes more and more performative, more fully attested, as science progresses.


    But if a) should be the case, then to claim that "only that knowledge can be real which is 'output' from some performative model" is to claim that real knowledge is, in the final analysis, necessarily a function of knowledge which is not real.

    And if b) should be the case, then there necessarily must be a regress which either is non-terminating (and thus comes to predate the existence of those creatures who alone construct performative models), or is terminating (and thus terminates with an Unoutputted First Performative Model).

    Right. Like I keep saying, science is ground -- bootstrapped -- by a metaphysical hypothesis; that humans can harness their sense-data and their analytical faculties to produce performative models of the world around them. It's a conjecture, a hypothesis subject to testing. It's not a 'performative model' at the beginning, just as no hypothesis is. The progression from hypothesis to theory, falsified hypothesis, or any assessment of its performance comes after the fact of the hypothesis, as part of the feedback loop.

    -TS

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  14. @David T,

    I had a comment a while back about responding to what you wrote about natural knowledge... you may have missed it in the flurry of posts. Or you may have chosen not to respond in the interests of time as you are dealing with several people. That's fine, but if you are still interested in responding, I'm listening...
    OK, thanks, I will go find that. I have a couple of comments for Sobieski to offer, and will respond to the questions you are referring to. Off for a bit now, but have these on my list.

    -TS

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  15. There is one massive question that Touchstone will never answer, because of his stupidity:
    Where do the laws of physics come from? Why is there uniformity in nature? Why don't objects tend towards the sky sometimes and towards the ground other times?

    Fundamentally, we don't have a way to know. We reason from our experiences outward, and our knowledge will always reach a frontier, beyond which we must admit, we do not have more basic knowledge. It's an infinite regress of explanations, otherwise, "turtles all the way down" for the one who supposes every deeper layer of explanation has yet one more we can apprehend.


    Consider the following:
    All natural bodies follow laws of conduct.
    These objects are themselves unintelligent.
    Laws of conduct are characteristic of intelligence.
    Therefore, there exists an intelligent being that created the laws for all natural bodies.
    This being is whom we call God.

    This is a simple equivocation on "law". When we say that natural bodies follow laws of conduct, we are speaking *descriptively*, law as a principles and rules that (to some approximation) consistently model natural dynamics.

    "Laws of conduct", as above, is a *prescriptive* usage of "law", laws as the edicts of an authority, a law-giver. We have lots of experience with *prescriptive* laws being issued by intelligent humans in authority. We have zero experience of physical dynamics which we describe with "law" in the descriptive sense being the product of humans, or minds.

    [quote]
    Touchstone is playing a mere semantics game when he speaks of function vs purpose.[/quote]
    No, the distinction is essential to the point; function, on a non-telic view, is the result of walking a search landscape, iterations varying parameters to find local maxima in the search landscape, but as a result of the interactions between that iteration and its environment. It's a "blind" search in that case, doing a random, incremental walk, but it finds peaks of functionality.

    "Purpose" denotes some a priori goal or end. Totally different concept in terms of how we interpret phenomena around us.

    God is not superfluous. Look at the laws of physics, or the existence of this world, which is just one possible world among many!!! What grants existence to the world! God does; He holds all in being with His.

    We have no way to establish the existence of such a being, nor any way to demonstrate this putative god's role, if any, in making our world the way it is. As such, that hypothesis does not help out our model at all.

    You can assert the dogma all you like, but scientific epistemology just shrugs at all that, impervious to the "force" of dogma. It's epistemically impotent, not distinguishable from it's negation.

    How would the world look different if nature obtained in some law-based, impersonal, and eternal (if you like) way? It wouldn't be different by our reckoning. So, as they say: Je n'avais pas besoin de cette hypothèse-là

    -TS

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  16. @sobieski,

    Ultimately the origin of knowledge is in the senses, which for A-T puts us in contact with reality. But as this is the most fundamental type of knowledge, it cannot be something subject to proof or demonstration. It would be a matter for metaphysics to defend the veracity of sense experience (universals and other fundamental principles) from those who would deny it. Without going into the external and internal senses in A-T, the agent intellect then abstracts the universals from our sense perception that then become the terms of our first principles.
    If you read Aristotle, then you go read the "empiricist pioneers" of the last 500 years -- Hobbes, Locke, Bacon, Hume, James, et al, it's not hard to find the connection: "naught in the intellect without first being in the senses". That's Aristotle. It's the "Empiricist's Creed" if there is such a thing. Aristotle began there, but, mystified by the mind, supposed there must be something else to appeal to in explaining mind.

    But in Aristotle, here, we find an argument from incredulity. It's not hard to understand, given the era this was all developing in: Hellenic physics at the time held that the five elements were air, water, earth, fire and aether, after all.

    We are in a different position, today, and our arguments from incredulity are not so firmly grounded in our ignorance. We have much yet to learn, but we do not have the kind of insuperability that mind must have presented to the ancient Greeks, today.

    All of which to say, the intellect, the nous fell, like so many other concepts from classical and historical philosophy, to the principle of parsimony. The "mind's eye" as a *separate* sense, not just the cognitive integrator of our sense, became superfluous, unnecessary. I think Aristotle would be amazed to learn that so many today, with the wealth of information and natural knowledge we have available today, which he did not, still cling to the incredulity that seemed quite natural in 4thC BCE.

    [One question may arise as to how do we know we have these powers? For Aristotle, powers are known by their acts, which are in turn known by their objects. Dr. Feser and other Thomists defend the fact that we know universals from those who hold for nominalism or conceptualism, but won't want to go off on that tangent.]

    Yes. I have several long time... "sparring partners" who like to point me to, among other sources, Dr. Feser's posts. This post, for example, some time back, was featured in a running debate on our email loop on (my, and others') nominalism. That's a topic of interest to me, but we're far afield enough here. It'll come up in some future discussion/post, perhaps.

    On the powers issue, though, would you say that you believe you have "intellect" powers, powers that are distinct from the imagination (or just the material idea of cognition), based on... your intuition that you have such a discrete faculty?

    -TS

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  17. @David T,

    I take it this is the post/question you were referring to in your last comment to me...


    This is what I'm not quite clear about. You seem to be saying that natural knowledge is knowledge of models. When we know, what we know is an algorithm that makes predictions. That's fine... but you also write of baseballs, the ground, and trajectories as the objects about which models make predictions. Are these latter things also known through natural knowledge, or through some other means?

    These are known through our senses, and are experiences and percepts we categorize and label through language.

    At a fundamental stimulus level, I may have "something I describe as tree-ness" appearing to me. It's a percept, self-evident. That is not the *concept* of "tree" that we may arrive at through our visual integration and language processing, but the raw stimulus that catalyzes such an association.

    What we perceive, we can, at length, recognize and distinguish, with some degree of precision. These "nouns" are actors in our model; a baseball works just fine as a proxy for a "general object" when we are talking about models for inertia and gravitational acceleration, for example.

    Someone else above asked where these models got bootstrapped from; our most general and vague model that proceeds from the metaphysical assumption that the extra-mental world is intelligible to some degree via our senses posits a working lexicon, the ability to identify and recognize various kinds of sense-data into sufficient categories and classifications that we can make statements and propositions about them. Natural experiences, then, at a basic level, enable crude models which do little more than imagine humans as capable of sensory integration.

    If that model holds up, and it seems humans can perform sufficient sensory integrations to enable conceptual thinking and concept-driven language, then we have a new baseline to work from in building further, more refined models. If you are familiar with the study of cognitive development in children, this is our trajectory;. babies are natural scientists, innate empricists, and they begin -- demonstrably -- building models concerning the world around them, and refining them, from their first days.

    But sophisticated models do not obtain as if by magic. Humans learn to integrate their senses, recognize and categorize objects, and attach concepts to them. As this skill develops, so does the ability to formulate more sophisticated models of the world around them. Infants just a few months old show us through their attention allocation that they have formed and deployed the concept of object persistence; when a ball is "occluded" (as the literature would put it) behind a researcher's back, the young child expects the ball to return into view, to "exist out of sight". Younger infants do not demonstrate this ability.

    That's just a quick example of building up rudimentary models that inform and enable more sophisticated models. Like everything else, so far as I'm aware, our knowledge of "nouns" and the basic features of these "nouns" obtains in the same fashion as the rest of our natural knowledge: through iterative processing on sense-data, incorporating feedback loops that emphasize and develop ideas that appear to perform well and be useful over others that do not.

    -TS

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  18. Touchstone,

    You wrote,

    - - - - -

    Understandable perhaps. But that method (if ever it was a method) is indeed obsolete, and not helpful (or no longer helpful, if every at one time it was) for arriving at that knowledge which may be taken to be real.

    So, is this Thomism you are talking about? What is this superceding new model? And how is it eclipsing scientific methodology and epistemology? What is it producing for us that science could not/does not, if you don't mind offering a couple of examples?

    - - - - -

    If you reread the comment, you'll find yourself wanting to revise the questions.

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  19. Touchstone,

    When you have time, I'd be interested in seeing your response to my posts. I've never had such an in-depth discussion about the New Riddle before.

    I believe that you see the full strength of the paradox now.

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  20. TS,

    Me: This is what I'm not quite clear about. You seem to be saying that natural knowledge is knowledge of models. When we know, what we know is an algorithm that makes predictions. That's fine... but you also write of baseballs, the ground, and trajectories as the objects about which models make predictions. Are these latter things also known through natural knowledge, or through some other means?

    You: These are known through our senses, and are experiences and percepts we categorize and label through language....
    That's just a quick example of building up rudimentary models that inform and enable more sophisticated models.


    Just to be clear, when I know a "baseball", what I'm knowing is a model whose substance is experiences and percepts?

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  21. Touchstone truly is the master of the art of argument by declaration. You simply say that there is no way of knowing that such a being as God exists. But you don't demonstrate why this must be so, or why this is so. The fact that our universe is contingent, that contingent beings exist (or beings with potentiality exist) necessitate that a necessary being exists (or that a being that is pure act exists).
    There was no indication whatsoever in my post that laws are prescriptive. I don't even know what you mean by this. All I meant was causal regularity, a causal regularity by the way which has consistently promoted the existence of life and continued to allow for the existence of life.
    Touchstone's posts either declare his beliefs to be true or use distraction techniques. Reason probabilistically points to the existence of God in the teleological argument, and definitely does so in the cosmological
    argument. If Touchstone doubts this second point then he must give an alternate explanation of how it is even possible that contingent beings exist without reference to a necessary being. But we already know this is impossible.
    I ask you, Touchstone, to try to become a better thinker.

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  22. @David T,

    Just to be clear, when I know a "baseball", what I'm knowing is a model whose substance is experiences and percepts?

    The percept is the direct experience of the baseball.

    The concept is the cognitive abstraction for the class of objects we associate (in this case) with the baseball percept.

    The model is a set of rule-based relationships and productions that integrate concepts.

    We build and maintain low level models, so while may not have any need for a "baseball model", per se, as opposed to maintaining a concept of "baseball", we deploy a model for objects in general; objects are discrete, generally persistent, identified and classified by their attributes, etc. Such an "object model" is not just about baseballs, but about physical objects in general.

    We "know" a baseball by perceiving it directly, but only in the sense of receiving sensory stimuli. We "know" a baseball by maintain an abstraction of the object, based on our percepts and patterns drawn from them. We "know" a baseball as a physics actor, generally, based on models that integrate concepts into a rule framework that establishes the relationship and dynamics governing those objects.

    Direct perception.
    Mental abstraction.
    Integration of concepts into models (that perform).

    -TS

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  23. TS,

    In normal usage, models are judged to be good or poor based on how well they represent the things they model. I build a model of an M1 tank and judge it good or poor based on a comparison with a real M1 tank.

    Given that our knowledge of physical objects is never knowledge of them directly, but only of our internal models of them, how can we judge how good the models are in representing reality?

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  24. @David T,
    In normal usage, models are judged to be good or poor based on how well they represent the things they model. I build a model of an M1 tank and judge it good or poor based on a comparison with a real M1 tank.

    Given that our knowledge of physical objects is never knowledge of them directly, but only of our internal models of them, how can we judge how good the models are in representing reality?


    We covered this above, and using the M1 tank example as a jumping off point. Performance is judged by the correlation between nature behaving as we observe it, and nature as our model predicts it will behave (along with satisfying the epistemic requirements of falsifiabilty, explanatory power, etc).

    If we have an "real, observed M1", RM1, and we can measure, observe and test its behavior, then our "modeled M1", MM1, will be judged by how closely MM1 approximates RM1. The more precise, accurate and novel the predictions MM1, the more it is judged to be a good model.

    -TS

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  25. TS,

    Performance is judged by the correlation between nature behaving as we observe it, and nature as our model predicts it

    I don't think we covered it, because I think you are stealing a base here. If I understand you correctly, we have no direct access to M1 tanks or baseballs, since all we have is models of physical objects. Is your "real observed M1" the M1 itself, or our interior model of the M1 based on integration of percepts? If the former, I don't understand what you meant by your earlier statement that all physical objects are object models. If the latter, how do you know the "real observed M1" (which is a model of an M1 based on integrated percepts) conforms to the real M1?

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  26. Touchstone,

    Am I to assume that you have decided to ignore Goodman's paradox, because it clearly cannot be defused along empiricist lines? Your last objections to it were a combination of red herrings and hand waving. This seems to be the path that any empiricist must take if they confront the original, undiluted paradox--unless, of course, they accept Goodman's skeptical solution of "entrenchment".

    The only method for defeating the New Riddle is essentialism. An appeal to logically necessary natures, powers and so forth destroys grue before it even gets off the ground. Essentialism also fits better with science in general. However, this requires that we abandon empiricism.

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