Note: The following article is cross-posted
over at First Things.
In a
piece in the March issue of First Things,
David Bentley Hart suggests that the arguments of natural law theorists are
bound to be ineffectual in the public square.
The reason is that such arguments mistakenly presuppose that there is
sufficient conceptual common ground between natural law theorists and their
opponents for fruitful moral debate to be possible. In particular, they presuppose that “the
moral meaning of nature should be perfectly evident to any properly reasoning
mind, regardless of religious belief or cultural formation.” In fact, Hart claims, there is no such common
ground, insofar as “our concept of nature, in any age, is entirely dependent
upon supernatural (or at least metaphysical) convictions.” For Hart, it is only when we look at nature
from a very specific religious and cultural perspective that we will see it the
way natural law theorists need us to see it in order for their arguments to be
compelling. And since such a perspective
on nature “must be received as an apocalyptic interruption of our ordinary
explanations,” as a deliverance of special divine revelation rather than
secular reason, it is inevitably one that not all parties to public debate are
going to share.
Now I have nothing but respect for Prof. Hart and his work. But this latest article is not his finest hour. Not to put too fine a point on it, by my count he commits no less than five logical fallacies -- equivocation, straw man, begging the question, non sequitur, and special pleading. He equivocates insofar as he fails to distinguish two very different theories that go under the “natural law” label. He also uses terms like “supernatural” and “metaphysical” as if they were interchangeable, or at least as if the differences between them were irrelevant to his argument. These ambiguities are essential to his case. When they are resolved, it becomes clear that with respect to both versions of natural law theory, Hart is attacking straw men and simply begging the question against them. It also becomes evident that his conclusion -- that it is “hopeless” to bring forth natural law arguments in the public square -- doesn’t follow from his premises, and that even if it did, if he were consistent he would have to apply it to his own position no less than to natural law theory.
Let’s
consider these problems with Hart’s argument in order. Who, specifically, are the “natural law
theorists” that Hart is criticizing?
Hart assures us that “names are not important.” In fact names are crucial, because it is only
by running together the two main contemporary approaches to natural law that
Hart can seem to have struck a blow against either.
So let’s
name names. What we might call the classical (or “old”) natural law theory
is the sort grounded in a specifically Aristotelian metaphysics of formal and
final causes -- that is to say, in the idea that things have immanent natures or substantial forms and that in virtue of those natures they are
inherently directed toward certain natural
ends, the realization of which constitutes the good for them. Accordingly, this approach firmly rejects the
so-called “fact/value dichotomy” associated with modern philosophers like
Hume. Its most prominent historical defender
is Aquinas, and it was standard in Neo-Scholastic manuals of ethics and moral
theology in the pre-Vatican II period.
In more recent decades it has been defended by writers like Ralph
McInerny, Henry Veatch, Russell Hittinger, David Oderberg, and Anthony
Lisska. (In the interests of full
disclosure -- of which, regrettably, self-promotion is a foreseen but
unintended byproduct, justifiable under the principle of double effect -- I
suppose I should mention that I have also defended classical natural law theory
in several places, such as my book Aquinas.)
What has
come to be called the “new natural law theory” eschews any specifically
Aristotelian metaphysical foundation, and in particular any appeal to formal
and final causes and thus any appeal to human nature (at least as “old natural
law” theorists would understand it). It
is a very recent development -- going back only to the 1960s, when it was
invented by Germain Grisez -- and its aim is to reconstruct natural law in
terms that could be accepted by someone who affirms the Humean fact/value
dichotomy. In addition to Grisez, it is
associated with writers like John Finnis, Joseph Boyle, William May, Robert P.
George, and Christopher Tollefsen. (Once
again in the interests of full disclosure, I should note that like other
classical natural law theorists, I have been very critical of the so-called
“new natural lawyers.” But it is also
only fair to point out that Hart’s argument has no more force against the “new”
natural law theory than it does against the “old” or classical version.)
What the two
approaches have in common is the view that objectively true moral conclusions
can be derived from premises that in no way presuppose any purported divine
revelation, any body of scriptural writings, or any particular religious
tradition. Rather, they can in principle
be known via purely philosophical arguments.
Where the two approaches differ is in their view of which philosophical claims, specifically, the natural law theorist
must defend in order to develop a system of natural law ethics. The “old” natural law theorist would hold
that a broadly classical, and specifically Aristotelian, metaphysical picture
of the world must be part of a complete defense of natural law. The “new” natural law theorist would hold
that natural law theory can be developed with a much more modest set of
metaphysical claims -- about the reality of free will, say, and a certain
theory of practical reason -- without having to challenge modern post-Humean,
post-Kantian philosophy in as radical and wholesale a way as the “old” natural
law theorist would. Both sides agree,
however, that some body of
metaphysical claims must be a part of a complete natural law theory, and
(again) that these claims can be defended without appeal to divine revelation,
scripture, etc.
Now Hart
characterizes natural law theory in general as committed to the reality of
final causes, indicates that he affirms their reality himself, but then (bizarrely)
appeals to Hume’s fact/value dichotomy as if it were obviously consistent with
affirming final causes, uses it as a basis for criticizing natural law
theorists for supposing conceptual common ground with their opponents, and
concludes that it is only by reference to controversial “supernatural (or at
least metaphysical) convictions” that natural law theory could be
defended. This is a tangle of
confusions.
For one
thing, if there were a version of natural law theory that both appealed to
final causes in nature and at the same time could allow for Hume’s fact/value
dichotomy, then Hart’s argument might at least get off the ground. But there is no such version of natural law
theory, and it seems that Hart is conflating the “new” and the “old” versions,
thereby directing his attack at a phantom position that no one actually
holds. The “new natural lawyers” agree with Hume and Hart that one cannot
derive an “ought” from an “is,” but precisely for that reason do not ground their position in a
metaphysics of final causes. The “old”
or classical natural law theory, meanwhile, certainly does affirm final causes,
but precisely for that reason rejects Hume’s fact/value dichotomy, and in
pressing it against them Hart simply begs the question.
It seems
Hart thinks otherwise because he supposes that even if our nature directs us to
certain ends that constitute the good for us, reason could still intelligibly
wonder why it ought to respect those natural ends or the good they define. But this implicitly supposes that reason itself, unlike everything else,
somehow lacks a natural end definitive of its proper function, or at least a
natural end that we can know through pure philosophical inquiry. And that is precisely what classical natural
law theory denies. In the view of the
“old” natural law theorist, when the metaphysics of intellect and volition are
properly understood, it turns out that it cannot in principle be rational to
will anything other than the good. The
fusion of “facts” and “values” goes all
the way down, without a gap into which the Humean might fit the wedge with
which he’d like to sever practical reason from any particular end. Hart simply assumes that this is false, or at least unknowable; he doesn’t give
any argument to show that it is. And thus he has offered no non-circular
criticism of the classical natural law theorist.
Of course
such a non-Humean view of practical reason is controversial -- though I defend
it in Aquinas, and other classical
natural law theorists have defended it as well -- but the fact that it is
controversial is completely irrelevant to the dispute between Hart and natural
law theory. For no natural law theorist
denies that some controversial
metaphysical conclusions have to be defended in order to defend natural law
theory. That is true of any moral theory, including secular
theories, and including whatever approach it is that Hart favors. Certainly it is true of the Humean thesis
about “facts” and “values,” which is just one controversial metaphysical claim
among others. Having to appeal to
controversial metaphysical assumptions is in no way whatsoever a special
problem for natural law theorists.
It also has
nothing whatsoever to do with claims about the supernatural order. Sloppy popular usage aside, “supernatural” is not
a synonym for “metaphysical” -- as Hart himself implicitly acknowledges with
the phrase “supernatural (or at least metaphysical),” quoted above. What is supernatural is what is beyond the
natural order altogether, and thus cannot be known via purely philosophical
argument but only via divine revelation.
Metaphysics, by contrast, is an enterprise that Platonists,
Aristotelians, materialists, idealists, philosophical theists, atheists, and
others have for millennia been engaged in without any reference to divine
revelation. So for Hart to insinuate
that its dependence on metaphysical premises entails that natural law rests on
divine revelation, “supernatural” foundations, or “an apocalyptic interruption
of our ordinary explanations” is simply a non
sequitur.
On the other
hand, if all Hart means to assert is that natural law theorists suppose that
the metaphysical commitments crucial to their position are uncontroversial,
then he is attacking a straw man. No
natural law theorist claims any such thing.
What they claim is merely that, however controversial, their position
can be defended via purely philosophical arguments and without resort to divine
revelation. And if its being
controversial makes it “hopeless” qua contribution to the public square, then every controversial position is hopeless.
Including
Hart’s. Which brings us to special
pleading. For what exactly is Hart’s alternative
approach to moral debate in the public square, and how is it supposed to be any
better? Is a theological position like
his -- with its appeal to the supernatural, to “apocalyptic interruptions,” and
the like -- less controversial than
natural law theory? Is it more likely to win the day in the public
square? To ask these question is to
answer them.
Nor could
Hart plausibly retreat into a quietist position that refuses to engage with
those who do not already share his fundamental commitments. For one thing, there is nothing quiet about
his book Atheist Delusions, which was
presumably intended as a contribution to the public debate over the New Atheism,
not a mere sermon to the circle of his fellow believers. That presupposes enough conceptual common
ground with those who disagree with him for them to understand his position,
controversial though it is, and in principle come to be swayed by his
arguments. If Hart can do this, why
can’t natural law theorists?
Here we see one
of several ways in which Hart’s position is ultimately incoherent, insofar as
if he applied his criticisms consistently he would find that they undermine his
own view no less than the natural law theorist’s. Hence, suppose Hume’s stricture against
deriving an “ought” from an “is” really were well-founded. It would follow that the purely theological
ethics to which Hart seems committed, no less than natural law theory, cannot
get off the ground. For statements about
what has been divinely revealed, or what God has commanded, would be mere
statements of “fact” (as Hume understands facts), statements about what “is”
the case. And how (given Hume’s account
of practical reason) does that tell us anything about “value,” about what we
“ought” to do? The most we can have are
the merely hypothetical imperatives Hart rightly (if inconsistently) derides as
insufficient for morality. If we happen to care about what God has
said, then we’ll do
such-and-such. But that tells us nothing
about why we ought to care. Hart, like so many other Christian
philosophers and theologians eager to accommodate themselves to Hume and other
moderns, fails to see that he has drunk, not a tonic that will restore
youthfulness to the Faith, but a poison that will kill the modernizer no less
than the traditionalist.
Notice also
the rich irony of a thinker who urges us to trust in divine revelation rather
than natural reason, and who appeals to a
secularist philosophical argument in order to make his case! Here Hart recapitulates a muddle which one
finds again and again in those who would absorb
nature into grace, or otherwise do
dirt on mere natural theology and natural law in favor of revelation alone. They inevitably
appeal to premises that cannot be found in revelation itself, because there is
no way in principle to avoid doing so.
For what is it in the first place for something to be revealed? How can we know it really has been? Why accept this purported revelation rather
than that one? If the answers are
supposed to be found in some purported revelation itself, how do we know that that was really revealed, or that its
meta-level answers are better than those of some other purported revelation?
And why wouldn’t such a patently circular procedure -- appealing to a
purported revelation in order to defend it -- justify any point of view? It is
only from a point of view outside the revelation -- the point of view of our
rational nature, which grace can only build on and never replace -- that these
questions can possibly be answered.
And then
there is the question of why anyone else
should accept the revelation -- of the missionary activity that, as I’m sure
Hart would agree, the Christian is called to.
If you are going to teach an Englishman Goethe in the original, you’re
going to have to teach him German first.
If you’re going to teach him algebra, you’d better make sure he already
knows basic arithmetic. And if you’re
going to preach the Gospel to him, you’re going to have to convince him first
that what you’re saying really did come from God, and isn’t just something the
people you got it from made up or hallucinated.
That’s why apologetics -- the praeambula
fidei, the study of what natural reason can and must know before it can know
the truths of faith -- precedes dogmatics in the order of knowledge, and always
will. The theologian who thinks
otherwise is like the Goethe scholar who screams in German at his English-speaking
students, telling them what idiots they are -- and deriding those who would
teach them German as engaged in a “hopeless” task.


Some quickie excerpts:
ReplyDelete6. ...losing the control of my reasoning faculties, my self-respect, which had hitherto controlled me, gave way.
40. ...I am now referring to those who are moderate and not utterly depraved in disposition...; and these perchance would be persuaded and forsake the pious opinion which is the cause of their hostility, if some reason either from their own minds, or from others, were to take hold of them, and at a critical moment[.]
47. For it is delightful to have the reasoning of the aged come to one even until the depth of old age, able, as it is, to aid a soul new to piety.
103. ...These are the two causes of my submission and tractability. Nor is it, perchance, unreasonable that my arguments should yield and submit to them both[.]
107. But, as I have learned from a man skilled in these subjects, and able to grasp the depth of the prophet, by means of a reasonable explanation of what seems unreasonable in the history...
117. Such is my defence: its reasonableness I have set forth[.]
Mr. Green,
ReplyDeleteIntellectualism in the sense I have been using it literally means "intellectualism-of-the-will". I probably should have clarified that from the start--I assumed everyone was on the same page.
Glenn,
So, too, is reasoning--and, therefore, reason.
Indeed. But, Wittgenstein again: "I said I would 'combat' the other man,--but wouldn't I give him reasons? Certainly; but how far do they go?" Someone outside of the axioms on which your tradition is based can't truly comprehend your use of reason. Reasoning is great for showing internal consistency, but how does that help you convert someone in the, as Hart calls it, "war of persuasions"? Every tradition uses reason of some sort, but one must accept a tradition's axioms for it to become logically persuasive.
This does not exclude aesthetics. Rather, it makes the point that reason itself is not (indeed cannot be) excluded.
Hart does not reject reason. Not even voluntarists reject reason. The question is how we treat reason. Is it a transcendent truth, as the intellectualists believe? Or is it a shackle, as the voluntarists believe?
I may be wrong, but I believe that Hart's point about aesthetics is not that it is non-intellectual, but that it crosses the borders between traditions. It's like the idea of "being": either you address it or presuppose it; you cannot deny it. Voluntarists ultimately see the beautiful as, in Hart's words, "no more than a diversion from the spectacle of worldly suffering"--but they address and come into contact with it, just as everyone must.
The 'voluntarism' he's talking about quite clearly is a metastasized mangling, i.e., a corruption, of the original doctrine.
And I would respond: what philosophical view isn't just a corruption (in the linguistic sense) of an earlier one? Aristotle is a corruption of Plato; Plato is a corruption of Socrates; Socrates is a corruption of the pre-Socratics. The Neo-Platonists corrupted Aristotle and were in turn corrupted by the Church Fathers. Aristotle was corrupted by the Muslim philosophers and then Albertus Magnus and Aquinas corrupted their corruption. Scotus corrupted Aquinas, then the nominalists corrupted Scotus.
That something is a corruption is to be taken for granted. The question is which corruption we accept.
By "Freedom, as we now conceive it..." Hart meant to suggest that the conception of freedom subsequently 'defined' is prevalent, not that everyone holds to that conception.
He meant that the majority of people in our historical epoch have taken to this definition of freedom, consciously or not. It is, after all, the foundation of capitalism, liberalism (both classical and modern), subjectivism, modern government and many other things. Most people are voluntarists simply because they have been raised in a society whose edifices are voluntaristic. To escape voluntarism entirely, you would have to abandon modern society. That's proof enough that Hart is not making a small-scale claim.
If the belief is that modern-day 'voluntarism' can be and is to be countered by a return to the Church Fathers--and I'm not taking a position that this necessarily isn't so--then I'd be happy to hear how one can read, e.g., Gregory of Nazianzus' Defence of his Flight to Pontus and still imply or make the claim that reason is uninvolved, useless, ineffectual or non-facilitating.
ReplyDeleteI don't believe that you could. But I'm also not entirely sure that "ressourcement" (so to speak) is what Hart has in mind. Even if we did return to the fathers--which is a good idea in general, because they're pretty great--, voluntarists would not be obliged to follow suit. Freedom as conceived by the fathers remains strictly intellectualistic, just as it was for Aquinas. Right from the start, it's incomprehensible to the voluntarist from a totally logical point of view.
As monk suggested, the way around voluntarism is not to use our tradition as "a base from which to combat theirs", in Wittgenstein's words, but rather to appeal to the existential needs of the individual. Nihilism is spiritually destructive, even if you believe that it is "true". You have to suggest to the voluntarist that there is a spiritually fulfilling way to look at reality--one that is not just self-deception, but which rests on axioms as firm as those of voluntarism. That's how you grab them. That, I believe, is what Hart tries to do in nearly all of his work.
Rank,
ReplyDeleteTo escape voluntarism entirely, you would have to abandon modern society.
I'm assuming that by 'voluntarism' you mean the modern-day corruption (of the theological doctrine of the same name) pointed to by Hart. Taking this assumption to be the case, I will say:
a) you have previously corrected my assertion that you are a 'self-identified voluntarist';
b) if that correction was indeed called for, and accurate, then your statement is refuted by your existence; and,
c) if that correction was not called for, and therefore not accurate, then it is my existence which refutes your statement.
Reasoning is great for showing internal consistency, but how does that help you convert someone in the, as Hart calls it, "war of persuasions"?
If reasoning can show internal consistency, then it can also show a lack thereof. And if it can show a lack thereof, then it can be used to show the voluntarist that he's not getting what he really wants (or that he's not really getting what he thinks he is) from his view of reality. If there is success in this endeavor, then an alternative view can be introduced.
However, it may not be necessary to introduce an alternative view.
If the voluntaritst is led to see that his view of reality is inconducive to or undermines his getting what he really wants, he may feel impelled by that poorly fulfilled need to seek out an alternative view. Should he then respond to this impellent by actually seeking out an alternate view, he will be weighing, consider, judging, etc. that which he finds or comes across--with the end in mind of seeing whether it matches or fills his need. This is to say that he will be engaged in reasoning. And this in turn is to say that he'll be making use of his intellect.
As monk suggested, the way around voluntarism is not to use our tradition as "a base from which to combat theirs", in Wittgenstein's words, but rather to appeal to the existential needs of the individual...You have to suggest to the voluntarist that there is a spiritually fulfilling way to look at reality--one that is not just self-deception[.]
See above.
Also, if you make such a suggestion with the end in mind of helping him to reconsider things, then you are employing reason--even if you don't see that you are. And if he buys into your suggestion, then reason has been effective--even if neither you nor he sees that it has been.
Right from the start, it's incomprehensible to the voluntarist from a totally logical point of view.
Sounds like you're opining that voluntarists have a deep hankering to be governed by reason.
If only they could find something which fits the bill...
(s/b ...governed by reason rather than capricious will.)
ReplyDeleteGlenn,
ReplyDeleteb) if that correction was indeed called for, and accurate, then your statement is refuted by your existence; and,
c) if that correction was not called for, and therefore not accurate, then it is my existence which refutes your statement.
I can't speak for you, but I haven't fully escaped voluntarism. It's a slow, steady process that involves dismantling many of your beliefs and ways of life. Now, I'm not a voluntarist, in the sense of believing that the will is superior to the intellect, that the will is ungrounded and spontaneous, etc. But I think I still have a bit more purging to do before I can call myself totally free from voluntarism.
If reasoning can show internal consistency, then it can also show a lack thereof. And if it can show a lack thereof, then it can be used to show the voluntarist that he's not getting what he really wants (or that he's not really getting what he thinks he is) from his view of reality.
I wouldn't call this reason in the logical sense. It's more of an existential appeal to basic spiritual and emotional needs: not an argument based on disinterested, inarguable logic. Even in this case, though, the voluntarist could decide that he was indeed getting what he wanted. He might be shown that there are no good reasons to accept his position, but he might simply prefer nihilism. We could refer to this man as a lost soul (which is his proper name), but his position is still just as logically sound as ours. To dismiss him as a madman would be to beg the question.
If the voluntaritst is led to see that his view of reality is inconducive to or undermines his getting what he really wants, he may feel impelled by that poorly fulfilled need to seek out an alternative view.
I agree. But only an incredibly small portion of the population even knows what voluntarism is. Generally, even when a modern voluntarist finds his life unfulfilling, he merely changes from one arbitrary practice to another. All of his choices still play out against a backdrop of voluntarism, which Hart describes as "the market" near the end of The Beauty of the Infinite. (Even many Christians today live within the market, which is why they don't follow the teachings of their faith in any serious way.)
To escape voluntarism, one has to:
A) recognize it;
B) recognize the alternative;
C) prefer the alternative; and
D) live according to the alternative.
Only extremely self-aware post-modernists reach A; they can't even comprehend the possibility of B. Most people don't reach A at all. A bare handful of radicals reach C, and, out of those, an even smaller group manages D. Natural law only begins to apply when you reach C. But the gap between A and C is massive, and it must be crossed without the aid of disinterested reason. Your guiding principles prior to reaching C must be "irrational" emotions and existential needs, since the transition changes your logical axioms. (In the case of someone switching to Christianity, one might refer to these "irrational" impulses as the motion of the Holy Spirit.)
This is to say that he will be engaged in reasoning. And this in turn is to say that he'll be making use of his intellect.
A voluntarist would counter that the man in transition was not "using his intellect", but was instead letting his will be confined by the shackles of meaningless logic. He was not becoming rational but rather becoming a slave. Again, nearly everything can be renarrated depending on one's point of view.
Also, if you make such a suggestion with the end in mind of helping him to reconsider things, then you are employing reason--even if you don't see that you are. And if he buys into your suggestion, then reason has been effective--even if neither you nor he sees that it has been.
ReplyDeleteI happen to believe in the truth of reason, and so that's no big deal. However, a voluntarist could, again, renarrate this situation: my attempt to help him reconsider things is not a use of reason, but an arbitrary volition that is, at bottom, a powergrab. His acceptance of my suggestion is not a use of reason but a weakness of will, which reduces him to being my slave. Again, I don't believe that any of this is true, given my intellectualist leanings--but it's rock-solid from a voluntarist's point of view. It sounds like something Nietzsche himself might have endorsed.
Rank,
ReplyDeleteA voluntarist would counter that the man in transition was not "using his intellect", but was instead letting his will be confined by the shackles of meaningless logic. He was not becoming rational but rather becoming a slave. Again, nearly everything can be renarrated depending on one's point of view.
A Ferrari might be called an automobile, a car, a vehicle, a transportation device, a four-wheeled contraption, a gas guzzler, a budget breaker, etc.
Changing the name or description of it doesn't change what it is.
And however much it may please the voluntarist to 'renarrate' the transitional man's "using his intellect" into "being confined by the shackles of meaningless logic" (or something else), the fact remains that the transitional man is using his intellect--and he, the voluntarist, will be using his intellect in 'renarrating' what the transitional man is doing.
Now, it may be that the voluntarist is misusing his intellect in his 'renarrating' (this would partly depend on the reason or motive underlying his 'renarration'); but the larger point here is that without the operation(s) of his intellect the voluntarist cannot engage in 'renarration'.
And however much it may please the voluntarist to 'renarrate' the transitional man's "using his intellect" into "being confined by the shackles of meaningless logic" (or something else), the fact remains that the transitional man is using his intellect--and he, the voluntarist, will be using his intellect in 'renarrating' what the transitional man is doing.
ReplyDeleteNo one has denied that the intellect exists, nor that it provides us with logical deductions. The question, once again (for the hundredth time), is whether those deductions are A) truths to be accepted or B) shackles to be escaped. On the latter view, the intellect's logical machinations are meaningless in themselves. We are free to accept or reject them as we please. We go through ideologies like socks: this matched with that, one pair thrown away in favor of another; and so on. To be persuaded by another--rather than choosing by your own random volition--is to have your will-to-power subjugated by another's. And to endorse an ideology as being true (which is to say that you dedicate your life to it) is to let your will be enslaved.
And that just is what's going on with the man in transition, from a voluntarist's point of view. He's sacrificing his freedom and the "meaning" (so-called) of his life in favor of slavery. Instead of letting his will define itself, he's letting it be defined (dominated) by other wills. His intellect isn't directing his will: his will is merely too weak to escape the dictates of his intellect. Likewise, it's too weak to escape domination by the wills of others.
Obviously, for the intellectualist, the man in transition is coming to understand himself for the first time. He's breaking away from nihilism and embracing truth. He's living in accord with his nature and seeking after the Good. He's acknowledging the primacy of his intellect for the first time. That's how we see it. But that isn't how the voluntarists see it.
Now, it may be that the voluntarist is misusing his intellect in his 'renarrating' (this would partly depend on the reason or motive underlying his 'renarration'); but the larger point here is that without the operation(s) of his intellect the voluntarist cannot engage in 'renarration'.
And no one denies it. As monk pointed out, we must accept certain axioms for the sake of communication. The voluntarist accepts the definitions of words and the rules of usage because, without them, he could not communicate. But he sees these definitions and rules as a kind of "original violence" done to his will. Because of them, his pure spontaneity has always already been compromised; shackled; enslaved. The rules that he follows while renarrating are a necessary evil.
Rank,
ReplyDeleteNo one has denied that the intellect exists, nor that it provides us with logical deductions. The question, once again (for the hundredth time), is whether those deductions are A) truths to be accepted or B) shackles to be escaped.
This, along with other on-going things, tells me (rightly or wrongly) that you have a specific 'solution' in mind, and are desirous of setting up and ramming home--even if in a round-about way--a false binary for the purpose of rally others in favor of that 'solution'.
Your loyalty to defending the limitations of the voluntarists you paint a picture of is... I don't know... an example of 'stick-to-it-iveness', I suppose I'll say.
I'm going to close out my participation in this discussion by stating my opinion that, when considered in the abstract, 'stick-to-it-iveness' is a worthy quality.
Someone outside of the axioms on which your tradition is based can't truly comprehend your use of reason...Every tradition uses reason of some sort, but one must accept a tradition's axioms for it to become logically persuasive.
ReplyDeleteRank, are you using "axiom" here in much the same way that modern mathematicians use it? That is to say, in much the same way that the ancient mathematicians used the word "postulate": Something I am assuming is true for the sake of the discussion, but is not understood to BE true simply. If A is arguing on the basis of X postulate, and B is arguing on the basis of not-X postulate, then their argument (stringing out logical conclusions from the premises) cannot be productive because their starting premises are not consistent with each other's.
Now, the term "axiom" in ancient mathematics and other study was understood differently: that which not only IS true, and which is KNOWN to be true, but is known with certainty because it is self-evident. Self-evident truths are not in the same category as postulates, because they are held to be true simply.
If you are saying that one tradition holds that X is an axiomatic truth, and another tradition holds that not-X is an axiomatic truth, then one of them MUST be wrong. And any further discussion following on using X or not-X cannot be productive. But there is no reason the argument cannot instead turn to pulling out X for discussion. For, (at least Aristotelians) the statement of X can be supported by other points, such as common experience. Both men experience "green above, and red below". That experience and many others can be used to examine X and see if X is consistent with all of the experience they have in common.
As monk pointed out, we must accept certain axioms for the sake of communication. The voluntarist accepts the definitions of words and the rules of usage because, without them, he could not communicate. But he sees these definitions and rules as a kind of "original violence" done to his will. Because of them, his pure spontaneity has always already been compromised; shackled; enslaved. The rules that he follows while renarrating are a necessary evil.
ReplyDeleteA voluntarist needn't "accept" the meaning of words at all - he can make up his own meanings for each and every sound he makes, completely independently of all others. Of course, doing so would make him unable to communicate, and he wants to communicate, which want he could eschew if he chose to. The fact that he does NOT so choose means that the voluntarily accepted common meanings of sounds is consistent with his volition.
A man could be a through-and-through voluntarist if and only if he could be, and if he could convince himself that he TRULY could be satisfied with being "unhappy" as such. That is, if he were to be so thoroughly in charge of his volition as to be able to will "unhappiness" as his LAST end. But in fact, no man really can will unhappiness as such as his last end, and only a true madman could imagine himself convinced of the idea when in fact he cannot actually will it - he would be convinced of a state of affairs that is not and cannot actually obtain.
To desire "happiness" as our last end is defined into our natures, and we are not designed "free" to choose otherwise. Given that pre-existing determination, the absolute voluntarist not only will not achieve his imagined goal, but he cannot really even WANT such a goal in his deepest heart because when he "wants" it, the achieving it would make him happy, and then he is still within the pre-determined order of wanting happiness.
Just as nobody REALLY thinks there is no such thing as truth and nobody REALLY thinks that we don't know any truth (for, when they think these they think these things as true), so also nobody REALLY wants other-than-happiness. These are bedrocks that we are unable to avoid no matter how hard we might wish and imagine avoiding. And once a voluntarist accepts wanting happiness is not an option, the rest of his position cannot really hold together.
I'm rather late, but a few comments in case anyone is still reading:
ReplyDeleteRank Sophist: Intellectualism in the sense I have been using it literally means "intellectualism-of-the-will". I probably should have clarified that from the start--I assumed everyone was on the same page.
Well, it was clear that that was the starting point, but then Hart somehow slips into "anti-intellectualism". There's no way to get there from a Scotus-like "voluntarism". (That may have been the sequence historically, but there's no legitimate philosophical argument that will get you there.) Maybe one can ignore truth, and intellect as the faculty thereof, but one cannot make an alternative to it. Human beings are rational animals, whether an anti-intellectualist likes it or not, so if Hart is claiming that some people genuinely are in that position, then I say he's just wrong. It's no more possible in practice than to grab a handful of pure prime matter.
On the other hand, if Hart is saying that not everyone is amenable to Scholastic syllogisms, as opposed to, say, a more aesthetic form of intellectualism, then I don't think there's so much disagreement. That's not so much an argument against natural law as an argument for teaching German if you want someone to read Goethe.
E. Feser wrote: "Now Hart characterizes natural law theory in general as committed to the reality of final causes, indicates that he affirms their reality himself, but then (bizarrely) appeals to Hume’s fact/value dichotomy as if it were obviously consistent with affirming final causes." This seems to be a main criticism of Hart in the above essay; it is, however, simply wrong. It is, to the contrary, indeed logically possible for a purpose or final cause to exist which might remain unknown or even unknowable to pure philosophical inquiry in the manner of classical foundationalism. Nothing bizarre or inconsistent about it! As per Eastern Christianity there might be divine realities that are simply mysterious, or if knowable to us are known only to the pure in heart who love God rather than via syllogistic process of discursive reasoning as its "foundation." Or as the Genesis narrative has it, knowledge of the good might be for us a part of the fall rather than a part of our created or natural state (this point was made by Bonhoeffer who called natural law "the devil's first lie"). What seems to this reader more ironic than anything in Hart's discussion is purportedly religiously neutral intellectual defense of a modern religious dogma (1871) of traditionalist Roman Catholicism claiming what can be known non-religiously about the good on the foundational basis of reason -non-religiously!- occurring in the face of virtual universal rejection of this notion not only among contemporary "pagan" philosophers, but also among philosophical theists who are Protestant, Jewish, Islamic, Orthodox Christian. Not to mention Roman Catholic philosophers who reject Natural Law Theory, despite this being labeled as dissent by traditionalists. This is why traditionalists so often seem to resort to claiming their opponents "must" either be committing some sort of "logical fallacy" (or a HOST of them, as alleged in Feser here) or they are simply not morally decent enough to get the intellectual point (also per Aquinas, and reflected by RC traditionalists in the comment section). -David H (not D.B.H.)
ReplyDeleteHow? If philosophy is natural(as Feser is stating) then to know the supernatural can only occur through knowledge of its limits, no actual content.
ReplyDeleteBut we know there are limits to philosophy beyond the supernatural. We know that you don't philosophize the existence of a tiger. You actually don't, without becoming an idealist, reduce reality, even the "natural" into philosophy. So, how does natural philosophy(what is presumed to be the fundamental philosophy) apprehend the natural from the non-natural?